5.45 Study Test - PM Mentors

5.45 Study Test - PM Mentors

The following is only to be used by students that have a taken Project Management Mentors exam prep training. 1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project? A. B. C. D. Constrained by limited resources Planned, executed, monitored, and controlled Creates a unique product or service Ongoing and repetitive Answer: D Explanation: A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. The temporary nature of projects indicates a definite beginning and ending. 1

2. In which document would you find the code of account identifier, description of work, responsible organization: A. B. C. D. Scope Statement WBS Dictionary PERT/Charts Responsibility Assignment Matrix Answer: B Explanation: Information in the WBS dictionary includes, but is not limited to, code of account identifier, description of work, responsible organization, list of schedule milestones, etc. 2

3. All the following statements relating to Project Management Staff and the project team are accurate EXCEPT: A. The Project Management Staff helps develop the Project Management Plan. B. The Project Team is responsible for activities like planning, controlling, and closing. C. The Project Management Staff is a subset of the project team. D. For very small projects, the project management responsibilities might be shared by the entire project team or administered solely by the project manager. Answer: B Explanation: The Project Management Staff is a subset of the project team and is responsible for the project management and leadership activities such as initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, controlling, and closing the various project phases. This group can also be referred to as the core, executive, or leadership team. For smaller projects, the project management responsibilities can be shared by the entire team or administered solely by the project manager. 3

4. You are considering whether to buy or make a software product. If you want to buy, the cost is $ 80,000, and the cost of procuring and integrating the product in your company is $ 1,000. If you want to build it yourself, the product will require seven engineers working for three months. The salary of each software engineer is $ 4,000 per month. The other related miscellaneous costs budget allocated to the project is $2,000. Which option will you choose? A. B. C. D. Buy Build Neither build, nor buy Need more information on suppliers to make a decision Answer: A Explanation: If you buy, the cost is: $ 80,000 + $ 1,000 = $ 81,000, If you build, the cost is: $ 4,000 x 7 x 3 + $ 2,000 = $ 86,000. So, in this

situation, it is preferable to buy. 4 5. Which of the following would not be helpful in performing the Develop Schedule Process? A. Schedule network analysis, critical path method, critical chain method B. Project calendars and schedule data C. Scheduling tool, schedule compression, leads and lags D. Modeling techniques, resource optimization techniques Answer: B Explanation: Know your Tools/Techniques. Project calendars and schedule data are outputs of the Develop Schedule Process. 5 6. In the context of the communication model, all the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. Noise (communication blockers) should be minimized.

B. Receiver should decode and reply to the message. C. Decoder (receiver) should acknowledge and agree with the message sent by the encoder (sender). D. Decoder should send a feedback message to the encoder. Answer: C Explanation: Inherent in the communication model is an action to acknowledge a message. Acknowledgment signals only receipt of the message, not agreement or understanding 6 7. The government has mandated that you ensure the neighborhood is not adversely impacted by your project. For your project, this directive is regarded as a/an: A. B. C. D. Assumption

Ethical practice Constraint LEAN Answer: C Explanation: From a project management point of view, constraints are factors that will limit the Project Management Staff`s options. Since this is a government mandate, it becomes a constraint for your project. LEAN is a quality technique focused on reducing/eliminating waste. 7 8. You are estimating schedule activity costs by determining the unit cost rates, e.g., staff costs per hour. All the following could be used to determine resource cost rates EXCEPT: A. Statistical relationship (parametric estimating) between historical data and other variables. B. Interviewing those doing the work. C. Reviewing standard rates with escalation factors (for contracts). D. Reviewing a sellers published price list.

Answer: A Explanation: Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables. All the other options are valid ways to determine unit cost rates. 8 9. You are performing the Control Risks process, and are on the lookout for indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. These indications can also be referred to as: A. B. C. D. Triggers Workarounds Risk averse Triggers, early warning signs, and risk symptoms

Answer: D Explanation: Best answer is Triggers. Indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. Triggers may be discovered in the risk identification process and watched in the risk monitoring and control process. Triggers are sometimes called risk symptoms or warning signs. 9 10. Stakeholders, including consultants, customers, sponsors, and professional and technical associations, that gather and analyze information with people and/or computers, are some of the sources of: A. B. C. D. Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets Expert judgment Stakeholder monitoring and control

Answer: C Explanation: Expert judgment: Additional expertise is available from many sources, including... other units within the organization; stakeholders, including consultants, customers, and sponsors; and professional and technical associations. 10 11. You decide to use statistical sampling for your project, because surveying the entire population involves all the following issues, except: A. B. C. D. Inaccurate data More money More time More resources

Answer: A Explanation: Survey of the entire population would yield the most accurate data. 11 12. Your organization requires that all technical projects go through Initiate, Analyze, Design, Implement, Test, and Closeout project life cycle which is: A. B. C. D. Defined as the product life cycle. Defined by having applicable project phases. Contains several product life cycles. Has deliverables that must be completed before work starts during the next phase. Answer: B Explanation: A project life cycle is a collection of generally

sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases whose name and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, the nature of the project itself, and its area of application. Option A and Option C are wrong because project life cycle does not include the product life cycle. Option D is not accurate because work in the next phase may, at times, start before the deliverables of the previous phase are completed. 12 13. Your team started creating a work breakdown structure for your project, but soon realized the project was too complex to be depicted completely in graphic format. You began using a work breakdown structure code of accounts to: A. B. C. D. Determine the complexity of the project

Identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found Help in automating the WBS using appropriate software Present justification for completing the project Answer: B Explanation: The WBS is finalized by establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a code of accounts. These identifiers provide a structure for hierarchical summation of costs, schedule, and resource information. 13 14. You advocate active participation of your team members; this is because you believe in: A. B. C. D. Theory Y (McGregor Model) Theory X (McGregor Model)

Maslow`s hierarchy of needs Referent Power Answer: A Explanation: Douglas McGregor advocates that most workers can be categorized according to two theories: Theory X: This assumes that the workers are inherently lazy and require supervision Theory Y: The average worker finds physical and mental effort on the job satisfying and likes his work. 14 15. Which of the following is the most widely used contract type? A. B. C. D. Cost plus incentive fee contracts Fixed price incentive fee contracts

Cost plus award fee contracts Firm Fixed Price Contract Answer: D Explanation: Firm fixed price contracts (FFP) is the most commonly used contract type. (And the type that is easier to budget for, typically provides the lowest risk, and requires no day-to-day administration.) 15 16. Please refer to the diagram given (all units are in days). What is the project float if management wants to complete this project within 13 days? A. 0 days B. - 3 days C. 2 days D. Cannot be determined, because information given in the question is incomplete Answer: B

Explanation: The possible paths are as follows: Start -> Task1 -> Task2 -> Task4-> End: 10 Start -> Task3 -> Task5 -> Task7-> End: 15 Start -> Task6 -> Task7 -> End: 15 Start -> Task1 -> Task2 -> Task3 -> Task5 -> Task7 -> End: 16 The critical path is 16. If the project has to be completed within 13 days, the project float is - 3 days (i.e., 13 - 16) A project may have a negative project float. To deal with such conditions, if the project has to be completed on time, the project manager will have to either fast-track or crash the project schedule. 16 17. You use issue logs or action item logs to document and monitor the resolution of issues. You focus on documentation and timely resolution of issues, because unresolved issues can: A. B. C. D.

Be escalated to the project sponsor. Become a major source of conflict if ignored. Become undetermined risks in the project. Have adverse effect on all project parameters. Answer: B Explanation: Issues are clearly stated and categorized based on urgency and their potential to impact the project. An owner is assigned an action for resolution, and target date is usually established for closure. Unresolved issues can be a major source of conflict and project delays. 17 18. Your project is almost complete, when the customer requests an additional feature in the project`s final product. The BEST course of action is to: A. Include the feature, as it will improve customer satisfaction. B. Include the feature -- otherwise the product will not be accepted by the customer. C. Talk with the customer and explain that the new feature does not make business sense. D. Follow your change control process.

Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the best available choice. Option A and Option B are not recommended, because this requirement was not in the initial scope of work. Agreeing to include this requirement now will impact your project deliverables. Option C assumes that you know more about the business needs than the customer, which may not be true. 18 19. You and the other Project Management Staff are using cost aggregation, reserve analysis, expert judgment, and funding limit reconciliation to establish a cost performance baseline. This is performed during which process? A. B. C. D. Control Costs Determine Budget

Estimate Costs Create WBS Answer: B Explanation: Knowing your tools & techniques is how you get this one right. Aggregate means add it all up. Determine Budget is the process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. Cost aggregation, reserve analysis, expert judgment, historical relationships, and funding limit reconciliation are all the tools/techniques used in this process. 19 20. Graphical representations of situations showing cause-and-effect, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes are also referred to as: A. B. C. D.

S-curve charts Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) Causal influence diagrams Run charts or scatter diagrams Answer: C Explanation: These are graphical representations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes. 20 21. During executing, all the following statements are apply, except: A. Most of the project budget will be expended during the Executing Process Group. B. The project manager and the team implement the planned methods and standards. C. The project manager will review/verify all information from the current phase-end closures. D. The project manager and the team manage risks and implement risk

contingency plans. Answer: C Explanation: When closing the project, the project manager will review all prior information from the previous phase closures to ensure that all project work is complete and that the project has met its objectives. 21 22. Determining the required levels of quality for the project is the responsibility of: A. B. C. D. Project Sponsor Project Manager/Project Management Staff Project Team All stakeholders in the project

Answer: B Explanation: The Project Manager and the Project Management Staff are responsible for managing the tradeoffs involved to deliver the required levels of both quality and grade. 22 23. You understand that managing stakeholder engagement is an important priority. Which statement on project stakeholders is NOT correct? A. Negative stakeholders should be ignored if the project has to be successfully completed. B. Stakeholders have varying levels of responsibility and authority when participating on a project and these can change over the course of the project life cycle. C. Emotional Intelligence (EI) is the ability to recognize our own as well as other peoples emotions, to discriminate between different feelings, and to use this information to guide thinking/behavior. D. Stakeholder expectations may be difficult to manage, because stakeholders often have very different or conflicting objectives. Answer: A Explanation: In the case of stakeholders with positive

expectations from the project, their interests are best served by helping the project succeed. The interests of negative stakeholders are served by impeding the project`s progress. Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in an increased likelihood of failure. 23 24. You need to verify whether deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. For this purpose, which of the following tools/techniques would you rely on? A. B. C. D. Inspection Expert judgment Observations Focus groups

Answer: A Explanation: Inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and verifying to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. 24 25. Two project team members disagree often on the best way to handle an issue. You ask them to look at the positives and negatives of their approaches and submit their recommendations, which could be a "middle path. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques have you used? A. B. C. D. Smoothing Compromising Confrontation Withdrawal

Answer: B Explanation: Both sides give a little. 25 26. You had conducted an independent estimate to find out the cost of subcontracting the manufacturing of 1,000,000 ball-bearings for your automobile company. You estimated the cost to be $500 per bearing. However, when you asked for bids and proposals from prospective sellers, the minimum price quoted was $750 per bearing. The reasons for the variance in the estimate could be all the following, EXCEPT: A. The procurement statement of work was not clear. B. The prospective sellers misunderstood the procurement statement of work. C. The procurement statement of work was not sufficient. D. There have been no major changes in the cost of material and labor since last year. Answer: D Explanation: Significant differences in cost estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient, ambiguous, and/or that the prospective sellers either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the procurement statement of work.

26 27. You are responsible for meeting the project schedule deadlines. If there is some delay in the project schedule, you should: A. Increase the timeline for the project. B. Determine what would happen if you fast tracked or crashed the project, and let the Change Control Board know the impact. C. Ask the resources to work overtime to meet the project deadlines. D. Change the project scope. Answer: B Explanation: Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope to meet schedule constraints, imposed dates, or other schedule objectives. Schedule compression techniques, include crashing, fast tracking, re-estimating, and/or cut scope/quality. 27 28. You are performing the Manage Communications Process. Which of the following is NOT an Tool/Technique:

A. B. C. D. Work performance information Communications technology Communications methods Information management systems Answer: A Explanation: Performance reports are the output from the Control Communications Process; not from Manage Communications Process. 28 29. One of your team members filed a critical report ten minutes before a bidder conference. You notice some serious errors have crept into the report. You should: A. Reschedule the meeting for a later date.

B. Go ahead with the meeting and tell the participants what is wrong with the report. C. Go ahead with the meeting, but ask your team member to make the presentation. D. Refer the team member`s report to management and ask them to cancel the meeting. Answer: A Explanation: Option A is the best choice. Its always best to understand things before you try to discuss them . Option B and C can adversely impact the team morale and undermine your position in the bidder conference. Option D is not recommended, as you should take ownership to solve the problem. 29 30. You are creating a cost performance baseline for your project. All of the following statements related to cost performance baseline are correct EXCEPT: A. It is a time - phased budget. B. To measure disbursements, a spending plan can be used as a costbaseline.

C. It is used to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance. D. In the earned value management technique, it is also known as cost measurement baseline. Answer: D Explanation: In the earned value management technique, the cost performance baseline is referred to as the performance measurement baseline (PMB). 30 31. You are the project manager in an automobile manufacturing company. Machine parts required in your manufacturing process supplied by a vendor did not reach in time because of heavy rains. You had anticipated this risk and planned for it in your risk register. You started using unutilized machine parts supplied one year ago. However, this has subjected your project to a new risk - the machine parts which were not used for one year suffer from higher level of defects. This new risk can also be called: A. B.

C. D. Contingency risk Pure risk Secondary risk Residual risk Answer: C Explanation: Components of risk registerSecondary risks that arise as a direct outcome of implementing a risk response. 31 32. You are in the process of performing the work as defined in the project management plan to achieve the project`s objectives. This is done during: A. B. C. D.

Direct and Manage Project Work Develop Project Management Plan Validate Scope Create Deliverables Answer: A Explanation: Performing the work is done during Executing. Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of performing the work defined in the project management plan to achieve the project`s objectives. 32 33. You are managing the tools/spare parts section for an aircraft manufacturing company. Your team members have discovered some defective tools/spare parts. The probable cause for these could be materials used, defective measurement systems, inaccurate tolerances in the machines, or other factors. To determine what caused the defect, you use: A.

B. C. D. Use a quality control chart Draw an Ishikawa diagram Create a flowchart Draw a Pareto chart Answer: B Explanation: Cause and effect diagrams (also called Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams), illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects. 33 34. You have been managing a project to construct a bridge on an Interstate highway. You have divided the project into phases to provide better management control. Which of the following is a characteristic of a project phase? A. Formal phase completion necessarily includes authorization for the

subsequent phase. B. A project phase can be closed with a decision not to begin the subsequent phase. C. Project phases shouldnt be divided into sub-phases even in complex projects, as it becomes too difficult to manage. D. All deliverables in the project phase should correspond to the project management process. Answer: B Explanation: Formal phase completion does not necessarily include authorization for the subsequent phase. For instance, if the risk is deemed to be too great for the project to continue or if the objectives are no longer required, a phase can be closed with the decision not to initiate any other phase. 34 35. An environmental remediation project has succeeded in reducing costs. This is achieved by implementing a change request for new technology not available when the scope was originally defined. An approach used to optimize project life cycle costs, save time, increase profits, improve quality, expand market share, solve problems, and/or use

resources more effectively is called: A. B. C. D. Value engineering Unanimity Voice of customer Kanban Answer: A Explanation: This is the definition for Value Engineering. Kanban is a method for managing knowledge work with an emphasis (JIT), and LEAN. Work is pulled from a que. May also relate to visual process management. 35 36. According to Herzberg`s theory, all of the following are motivating factors, except:

A. B. C. D. Recognition Increased responsibility Career advancement possibilities Salary Answer: D (Although an increase in salary for additional performance can be a motivator, salary by itself is not.) 36 37. You have to provide a critical deliverable within five months and do not have time to go through the Conduct Procurements process. You decide to sign a contract with a supplier with whom your company has done some work in the past. The risk you are accepting in this situation is:

A. B. C. D. The ability/skills of the supplier to deliver the goods. Collusion between the supplier and your team. Lack of proper scope definition. Lack of a legally binding agreement. Answer: A Explanation: The risk here is that even though the supplier has worked with the company in the past, they may not have the required skills for the current project. 37 38. You are in the process of performing the Develop Schedule process to determine planned start and finish dates for project activities. Which of the following inputs will be helpful for beginning this process? A.

B. C. D. Activity attributes, project scope statement, and activity list Activity list, activity attributes, and schedule data Project calendar, requested changes, and schedule data Work performance information, schedule baseline, and performance reports Answer: A Explanation: In the Develop Schedule Process, planned start and finish dates for project activities are determined by using activity attributes, project scope statement, and activity list as inputs. The other options contain outputs. 38 39. You are performing the Control Communications Process to organize and summarize the information gathered. Later, you present the results of

the analysis as a comparison to the performance measurement baseline. Some common formats for performance reports that you could use are: A. B. C. D. S-curves, histograms, Pareto diagrams, GERT Charts S-curves, responsibility assignment matrices, histograms Bar charts, S-curves, histograms Bar charts, control charts, project network diagrams Answer: C Explanation: Common formats for performance reports include bar charts, S-curves, histograms, and tables. 39 40. You are managing a project in a foreign country, and now you realize you will have to pay a fee to some government agencies to get your work done. You should:

A. Pay the fee to the government agencies. B. Refuse to pay the fee, because they are bribes and hence unethical. C. Make a case why fees should be paid to government agencies, and present it to your management. D. Offer gifts to the government officials instead of fee to get their support. Answer: A Explanation: A project manager has the responsibility to refrain from offering or accepting inappropriate payments, gifts, or other forms of compensation for personal gain, unless it is in conformity with applicable laws or customs of the country where the project management services are provided. In this scenario, however, since the law of the country requires payment of fee to the government agencies, you will not be committing any breach of the Code if you pay the same. It is a constraint. 40 41. There have been several changes in the cost and schedule estimates on your project, and the original estimating assumptions are no longer valid. Calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) for your project based on the following data? BAC = $ 300,000

AC = $ 100,000 EV = $ 150,000 CPI = 1.2 ETC = $ 120,000 A. B. C. D. $ 250,000 $ 220,000 $ 280,000 $ 300,000 Answer: B Explanation: Since original estimating assumptions are no longer valid, EAC = AC + ETC = $ 100,000 + $ 120,000 = $ 220,000 41

42. You have been sub-contracting your IT development work to four consulting firms. In this context, all the following statements relating to transferring of risk to a contractor are true, except: A. B. C. D. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium. Fixed price contract always transfers the risk to the seller. Cost-plus contracts may transfer the cost risks to the buyer. Contracts may be used for the transference of liability for specified risks to another party. Answer: B Explanation: A fixed-price contract may transfer risk to the seller. 42

43. Project integration management includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities. For successful project integration management, it would likely be best to have: A. B. C. D. A strong matrix organizational structure in your company A good communication management plan Good project selection techniques Positive stakeholders who support the project Answer: B Explanation: Option B is the best choice. Integration and Communication go hand-in-hand. A good communication management plan ensures good communication between the different project interfaces and team members. This is essential for project integration management. Option A: Strong matrix organizational structure is not essential for good project integration management. Other organization

structures, including projectized, balanced matrix, etc, can also provide successful project integration management. Option C: Project selection techniques are used for project selection in initial stages of the project. However, they are not essential for project integration management. Option D: Projects may have positive and negative stakeholders, but the type of stakeholders will not affect successful project integration 43 management. 44. The customer was not satisfied with the finished product`s quality. The cost of poor quality can also be referred to as: A. B. C. D. Cost of conformance Failure costs Sunk costs Opportunity costs

Answer: B Explanation: Failure costs are often categorized into internal (found by the project) and external (found by the customer). Failure costs are also called cost of poor quality. 44 45. As a portfolio manager, you would be responsible for managing which of the following? A. B. C. D. Project interdependencies Projects and programs Programs and operations Functional work and operations Answer: C Explanation: Best answer. Portfolio refers to a collection of

projects or programs and other work that are grouped together to facilitate effective management of that work to meet strategic business objectives.) 45 46. The sponsor wants to make a change to the project. You should: A. Ask the sponsor to determine the impact of the schedule first. B. Ask the sponsor how much it will cost to make the change. C. Perform a funding limit reconciliation immediately, and let the sponsor know what the additional costs will be. D. Work with the sponsor throughout the change control process. Answer: D Explanation: If there is a major change to the project, the project manager should try to influence the change to minimize the impact on the project. Usually the project manager s advised to do the following: 1) Evaluate the impact of the change within the team. 2) Help the customer (or person requesting the change) understand the impact of the change. 3) If changes are in fact required, then open a change control and get the request approved. Obviously, you will have to inform the management and the change control board about the impact of the changes. 4) If the change control board

approves changes, then make appropriate changes in the project plan. 46 47. Your Project Management Staff is in the process of developing the Human Resource Plan. The enterprise environmental factor that cannot influence this process is: A. B. C. D. Lessons learned documentation Existing human resources Personnel administration policies Marketplace conditions Answer: A Explanation: The enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Develop Human Resource Plan process include, but are not limited to: organizational culture and structure, existing human resources,

personnel administration policies, and marketplace conditions. Lessons learned documentation become organizational process assets. 47 48. Your company has entered into a joint venture with another company, and you are in the process of finalizing a teaming agreement. In the teaming agreement, both the buyer and the seller collectively prepare: A. B. C. D. Source selection criteria Contract Procurement statement of work The contract & procurement statement of work Answer: D Explanation: Best answer. Teaming agreement: The effort of

the buyer and the seller in this process is to collectively prepare a procurement statement of work that will satisfy the requirements of the project. The parties will then negotiate a final contract for award. 48 49. The process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables refers to: A. B. C. D. Define Activities Collect Requirements Create WBS Create Stakeholder Management Plan Answer: A Explanation: Define Activities is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.

49 50. All of the following are inputs to the Define Scope Process, except: A. B. C. D. Requirements documentation Project Charter Project Scope Statement Organizational Process Assets Answer: C Explanation: The Project Scope Statement is the key output of the Define Scope Process. 50 51. You have conducted a communication requirements analysis to

determine the total number of possible communication channels in the project. While conducting the analysis, you learn that the number of communication channels: A. Increases in reverse proportion to the number of people. B. Decreases in inverse proportion to the number of people. C. Increases in exponential proportion when the number of people increases. D. Depends on the type of project. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the best answer. Formula is n (n-A) / 2 51 52. You have been asked to help management select two of three potential projects. Which of the following would not apply? A. B. C. D.

Configuration management Constrained optimization method Benefit measurement methods Analogous estimating Answer: A Explanation: Configuration management is used for changes/version control. 52 53. You are in the Identify Risks Process and are determining which risks may affect the project and document their characteristics. Whom would you want to be a part of the Identify Risks process? A. The project manager, project team members, subject matter experts, and customers. B. The risk management team, end users, and risk management experts. C. All relevant stakeholders. D. Positively impacted stakeholders. Answer: C Explanation: Dont expect, but dont exclude. Participants in risk

identification activities can include the following: project manager, project team members, risk management team (if assigned), customers, subject matter experts from outside the project team, end users, other project managers, stakeholders, and risk management experts. While these personnel are often key participants for risk identification, all project 53 personnel should be encouraged to identify risks. 54. A change in your project schedule has resulted in increased cost and risk. It has also impacted your resource plan. To coordinate changes across the entire project, you will need to rely on which process: A. B. C. D. Configuration Management Plan Perform Integrated Change Control Change Request Plans

Changes to project plan baselines Answer: B Explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control process includes... coordinating changes across the entire project. 54 55. In a normal distribution, standard deviation refers to: A. B. C. D. Distance of measurement from the mean (i.e. how far from the mean) Distance of measurement from the most likely value Distance of measurement from the middle most value A tool that is used in qualitative risk analysis Answer: A Explanation: Standard

deviation is a distance of measurement from the mean or, the square root of the average of the squares of deviations (about) the mean of a set of data. Standard deviation is a statistical measure of spread or variability. A standard normal distribution, which shows standard deviation (sigma) as distance of the measurement from the mean value. 55 56. You and your Project Management Staff are developing the Project Management Plan. Which of the following is not in the correct sequence? A. Plan risk management, identify risks, qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, plan procurements B. Scope management plan, stakeholder management plan, requirements documentation, project scope statement, WBS

C. Activity lists, estimate resources, estimate durations, schedule, project schedule network diagram D. Quality management plan, staffing management plan, communications management plan Answer: C Explanation: Schedule comes after the Project Schedule Network Diagram. 56 57. You are the project manager at a software development company, and need ideas for project and product requirements. Which of the following techniques would you most likely use to gather creative ideas at your meeting? A. B. C. D.

Focus groups Idea/mind mapping Nominal group technique Brainstorming Answer: D Explanation: Brainstorming (best answer): A technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product requirements. The other options actually utilize brainstorming. 57 58. You invest a lot of time in team development to increase the team`s performance, which in turn increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. Which of the following indicators would you most likely NOT use to evaluate your team`s effectiveness? A. Improvement in skills of team members. B. Improvement in competencies and morale that help the team to perform better as a group. C. Decrease in staff-attrition (i.e, fewer people leaving the project team). D. Delivery of project deliverables ahead of schedule.

Answer: D Explanation: To evaluate the team`s effectiveness, we may include indicators such as: Improvements in skills that allow individuals to perform assignments more effectively; Improvements in competencies that help the team to perform better as a team; Reduced staff turnover rate; Increased team cohesiveness whereby team members share information and experiences and help each other to improve the overall project 58 performance 59. Which of the following statements on time and material contracts is true? A. These types of contracts resemble cost-reimbursable type arrangements, because they are close ended. B. T&M contracts cannot grow in value like a cost-reimbursable contract. C. The full value of the agreement is defined at the time of contract award. D. Unit rates can be fixed by the buyer and seller when both parties agree on the values for specific resource categories. Answer: D Explanation: Time and material (T&M) contracts are the types of contracts that resemble cost-reimbursable contracts in that they can be left

open ended and may be subject to a cost increase for the buyer. The full value of the agreement and the exact quantity of items to be delivered may not be defined by the buyer at the time of the contract award. Thus, T&M contracts can increase in contract value as if they are cost-reimbursable contracts. Unit labor or material rates can be preset by the buyer and seller, including seller profit, when both parties agree on the values for specific resource categories, such as senior engineers at specified rates per hour, or 59 categories of materials at specified rates per unit. 60. While creating a project schedule, what duration should a milestone have? A. Zero B. Duration equal to the phase duration C. Duration estimates plus cost of conformance and contingency reserves D. Early start plus duration Answer: A Explanation: Milestone is a significant point or event in the project with no duration associated with it.

60 61. You would like to conduct a lessons learned session to identify project successes and failures, as well as make recommendations to improve future project performance. This is usually done: A. B. C. D. During project closure After scope validation Throughout the project life cycle at phase exits During project execution and project closure Answer: C Explanation: During the project life cycle, the project team and key stakeholders identify lessons learned concerning all aspects of the project. The lessons learned are compiled, documented, and distributed so that they

become part of the historical database. However, most of the organizations prefer post-implementation meetings and case studies to document lessons learned. 61 62. You recently went on an official trip to another country to discuss a business proposition with a potential vendor. The vendor took you out for lunch and offered you gifts, as it is customary in that country. You must: A. Tell the vendor that you cannot accept the gifts as per company policy B. Accept the gifts as it is a local custom, but promptly inform your manager C. Return the gifts, because accepting them could be interpreted as a personal gain D. Accept the gifts, as they are not very expensive Answer: B Explanation: A project manager has the responsibility to refrain from offering or accepting inappropriate payments, gifts, or other forms of compensation for personal gain, unless it is in agreement with applicable laws or customs of the country where the project management services are being provided.

62 63. All of the following relate to the Closing Process Group, except: A. Managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes/corrections to contracts as appropriate. B. Procurements should be finalized prior to closing the project C. Procurement information should be stored in a records management system D. The project sponsor signs off on the project after the final lessons learned is complete Answer: A Explanation: This is the definition for the Control Procurements Process, which is performed during monitoring and controlling. 63 64. You have identified important risks and planned the appropriate responses. Some risks (e.g. possibility of natural disasters impacting the

project) have been documented and accepted in your risk management plan. What are the remaining risks called? A. B. C. D. Unidentifiable Risks Residual Risks Secondary Risks Inherent Risks Answer: B Explanation: Components of the risk register...include: Residual risks that are expected to remain after planned responses have been taken, as well as those that have been deliberately accepted. 64 65. In a recent job interview, you are asked to define the most important characteristic of a project manager. Which of the following will be the best

answer? A. B. C. D. Subject matter expert Integrator Encoder Risk manager Answer: B Explanation: In the project management context, integration includes characteristics of unification, consolidation, articulation, and integrative actions that are crucial to project completion, successfully managing stakeholder expectations, and meeting requirements. 65 66. You have been asked to prepare a process improvement plan. You should consider all the following, except:

A. B. C. D. Costs of non conformance Targets for improved performance Process boundaries and process metrics Continual process improvement analysis meetings during Executing Answer: A Explanation: Costs of non conformance are rework, etc. The areas to be considered in the process improvement plan include process boundaries, process configuration, process metrics, and targets for improved performance. 66 67. You are responsible for managing a project in your company but you have little authority and have to constantly report to a functional

manager. To which organizational structure does your company best relate to? A. B. C. D. Matrix Functional Projectized Balanced Answer: B Explanation: A classic functional organization... is a hierarchy where each employee has one clear superior. Staff members are grouped by specialty, such as production, marketing, engineering, and accounting at the top level. 67

68. You are a project manager in a manufacturing company, and are developing a new product. In this context, you are conducting requirements workshop for the stakeholders to determine the product`s critical characteristics. Which technique would best be used for this purpose? A. B. C. D. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) Joint Application Development (JAD) Voice Of Customer (VOC) Key Performance Indicators (KPI) Answer: A Explanation: Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is an example of a facilitated workshop technique that helps determine critical characteristics for new product development. KPI is a type of performance measurement used to evaluate the success of the project.

(E.g. zero defects, meets business requirements, customer satisfaction.)68 69. You establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. You believe that early commitment to clear guidelines will decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity. These expectations and guidelines are also known as: A. B. C. D. Team-building activities Ground rules Interpersonal skills Core team rules of conduct Answer: B Explanation: Ground rules establish clear expectations on acceptable behavior by project team members. Early commitment to clear guidelines decreases misunderstandings and increases productivity.

Discussing ground rules allows team members to discover values that are important to one another. 69 70. You are in the process of determining the types of contracts to be used, need for standardized procurement documents, and ways of managing multiple providers. You can get the guidance for doing these activities through: A. B. C. D. Project Management Plan Contract Change Control Plan Procurement Management Plan Cost Management Plan Answer: C Explanation: The procurement management plan describes how

the procurement processes will be managed from developing procurement documents through contract closure. The procurement management plan can include guidance for: - Types of contracts to be used - Whether independent estimates will be used and if they are needed as evaluation criteria - Managing multiple suppliers 70 71. You are beginning the Estimate Activity Durations Process. Which of the following would be helpful? A. B. C. D. Source selection criteria, P-I matrix Staffing management plan, Communications management plan Quality metrics, Quality checklists

Activity list, Resource Calendars, Resource Breakdown Structure, Risk Register Answer: D Explanation: Helpful inputs. Note that risk register is included as part of the contingency reserves needed for reserve analysis. 71 72. You are the project manager with seven team members. One more member will be joining the team after a week. What will be the number of communication channels once the new member joins your team? A. B. C. D. 28 21 18

36 Answer: D Explanation: There will be 9 people in your team (this includes 8 team members and you, the project manager). So, the number of communication channels = 9 * (9 - A) / 2 = 9 * 8 / 2 = 36. 72 73. All of the following are inputs for the Monitor and Control Project Work Process, except: A. Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets B. Validated changes, work performance information C. Change requests & work performance reports D. Schedule & cost forecasts Answer: C Explanation: These are actually outputs for this process. 73

74. Half way through your construction project, the CPI is 0.85 and SPI is 1.25. What could be the possible reason? A. A critical resource went on sick leave for a long period of time, which had not been anticipated earlier. B. The cost of raw materials required for construction increased by 10%. (You had anticipated a cost increase of 12% in your project plans.) C. In anticipation of delays, the project was crashed to decrease the duration. D. There was four days waiting time in the curing of concrete, and work could not be done during that time. Answer: C Explanation: Option C: This is the correct answer, because crashing of a project results in decreased duration and increased costs. This verifies the given data on CPI and SPI. Options 1 and 4: They are ruled out, because they do not verify the given data that SPI>1. Option B: This is also ruled out, because it does not verify the given data that CPI<1. 74 75. Even after carefully performing risk management for the project, you

realize that possibility of new risks occurring in the future still exists. You will be able to handle such risks if you perform: A. B. C. D. P-I Matrix Assessments Continuous Process Improvement Control Risks Risk Response Analysis Answer: C Explanation: The Control Risks is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. 75

76. Which of the following are not inputs to the Direct and Manage Project Work Process: A. B. C. D. Organizational process assets Approved change requests Project management plan Change control tools Answer: D Explanation: Change control tools are a technique used in Perform Integrated Change Control process. The activities performed during the Direct and Manage Project Work process include but are not limited to manage sellers and suppliers, create project deliverables, implement the planned methods and standards, etc. 76

77. You have completed a NASA project for the launch of a weather forecasting satellite. The satellite is being tested for a specific quality metric. For which processes are quality metrics used? A. Perform Quality Assurance and Plan Quality Management B. Plan Quality Management and Perform Quality Control C. Perform Quality Control, Plan Quality Management, and Perform Quality Assurance D. Perform Quality Assurance and Perform Quality Control Answer: D Explanation: Quality metrics are used in the Perform Quality Assurance and Perform Quality Control processesNot in Planning. 77 78. You are a project manager in XYZ Company, which has a projectized organizational structure. In this environment, all of the following are true, except: A. Team members are often collocated. B. There is a "home" for project team members after a project is

completed. C. You have a great deal of authority and independence. D. Organizational units (or departments) either report directly to you or provide support services to the various projects. Answer: B Explanation: One disadvantage of a projectized organization is that there is "no home" for the project team members once the project is completed. All the remaining features mentioned above are features of a projectized organization. 78 79. In projects, expert judgment will often be used throughout all the project integration processes as a common tool/technique. This can be provided by all of the following, except: A. B. C. D.

Professional and technical associations Competitors Consultants Other units within the organization Answer: B Explanation: Expert judgment is available from: - Other units within the organization - Consultants - Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors - Professional and technical associations - Industry groups - Subject matter experts 79 80. In a previous project, the project manager told the team members what to do. The type of authority they likely had was: A. B. C.

D. Legitimate (formal, based on position) Laissez faire Expert Penalty Answer: A 80 81. Which of the following would not be used during the Control Procurements Process? A. Contract change control, procurement performance reviews, payment systems B. Performance reporting, inspections, audits C. Claims administration, records management system

D. Procurement audits, closed procurements Answer: D Explanation: Closed procurements is performed during the Close Procurements process. 81 82. All the following statements regarding the creation of duration estimates are correct, EXCEPT: A. Mathematical analyses like CPM, GERT, and PERT indicate the dates on which the activity can be scheduled, given resource limits and other constraints. B. Duration compression techniques, including fast tracking and crashing, can help in decreasing the project schedule. C. WBS classification allows for useful activity ordering and sorting. D. The duration of the project is the sum of the duration of all the activities in the project. Answer: D Explanation: The duration of the project should be calculated

after drawing a network diagram and determining the critical path. The duration of the project is the length of the critical path and not the sum of the duration of all the tasks in the project. 82 83. Which of the following motivation theories is attributed to Victor Vroom? A. B. C. D. Three Needs Theory Expectancy Theory Theory Y Situational Leadership II Theory Answer: B Explanation: Victor Vroom is attributed with the Expectancy Theory. People expect to be recognized/rewarded, so plan on how to link their performance with their desired reward. (Three Needs: David

MCleland. Theory Y: Ouichi. Situational Leadership II: Hersey & Blanchard) 83 84. The seller`s project is undertaken on contract and you are an employee of the seller. Since you earlier worked with ABC Bank, the buyer, you are aware of the evaluation criteria used in ABC Bank to select sellers. You understand this could be a potential conflict of interest situation. How do you propose to act? A. Do nothing and continue to work as before. B. Take the appropriate person in ABC Bank into confidence and discuss this issue with her to determine what to do. C. Disclose the evaluation criteria to your (seller) organization and help their business grow. D. Remove yourself from the projectthis is a conflict of interest. Answer: B Explanation: Option B (best answer): This is the correct answer. Since the evaluation criteria are proprietary information of ABC Bank, it is important for you to discuss the matter directly with the appropriate person in the

ABC Bank. Option A: This introduces conflict of interest as to whether to act or not in favor of your current employer. Option C: This is unethical, because proprietary information of the buyer should not be disclosed. Option D: This is an extreme 84 step that could be taken only if required after talking to the buyer. 85. Calculate the to-complete-performance index (TCPI) of your project, given that the actual cost of your project is $125,000, cost variance is $65,000, and the budget at completion is $250,000. A. B. C. D. .9 0.48 1.7 .3

Answer: B Explanation: CV = EV - AC So, EV = CV + AC = 65,000 + 125,000 = 190,000. TCPI = (BAC-EV) / (BAC-AC) = (250000-190000) / (250000-125000) = 60000/125000 = 0.48 85 86. In your project, you have just conducted a risk data quality assessment to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management. What is your next step? A. Perform a structured review of project plans and assumptions, both at the total project and detailed scope levels. B. Develop checklists to identify risks based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from previous similar projects. C. Conduct planning meetings to develop the risk management plan. D. Conduct interviews to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project activities. Answer: D Explanation: Justification: Risk data quality assessment is a tool for Perform

Qualitative Risk Analysis process. It refers to "Interviewing" which is a tool and technique for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is conducted after Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. Option A: This refers to "Documentation Reviews" which is a tool and technique for Identify Risks process. Identify Risks process is conducted before Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. Option B: This refers to "Checklist Analysis" which is a tool and technique for Identify Risks process. Identify Risks process is conducted before Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. Option C: This refers to "Planning Meetings and Analysis" which is a tool and technique for Plan Risk Management process. Plan Risk Management process is conducted before Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. 86 87. You are the project manager for a project managed under contract. You receive a change request from the buyer involving a new government regulation. What should you do FIRST? A. Talk with the project team members to understand implications of the change. B. Adopt an Agile project lifecycle. C. Begin the change control process. D. Implement the change and communicate to the customer. Answer: C Explanation: Since the change request pertains to a

government regulation and the project is being managed as part of a contract, it is mandatory to implement the change. The first step towards that is to activate the change control procedure. Agile (iterative type of lifecycle) relates to determining scope early, and modifying schedule and cost routinely over the course of the project. The product is developed through a series of iterations (repeated cycles, i.e. Agile). 87 88. In your project, you would like to identify logical groupings based on natural relationships. Which one of the following techniques would you use? A. B. C. D. Force field analysis Affinity diagrams Voice of Customer

SWOT analysis Answer: B Explanation: Affinity diagrams are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships. 88 89. Your project sponsor has specified that you have to complete your project within 3 months with a funding limit of $ 250,000. This is an example of: A. B. C. D. Authoritative management A constraint An assumption High-level risk

Answer: B Explanation: Project constraints are those constraints associated with the project scope that limit the team`s options. For example, a predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization constitute constraints. 89 90. Your company exhibited a car model in two international auto expos and obtained feedback from the global automobile industry, auto magazines, and others. The company decided to go ahead with the designing and manufacturing of the car, taking into consideration the feedback received. Which of the following methods did your company use? A. B. C. D. Observation technique Prototype

Requirements analysis Quality sample Answer: B Explanation: Since prototypes are tangible, prototyping allows stakeholders to experiment with a model of their final product rather than only discussing abstract representation of their requirements. Prototype is a method of obtaining feedback on a requirement by providing a model to work on. Option A: Observation technique provides a direct way of viewing Individual in their environment and how they perform their jobs and tasks to carry out the processes Option C: Requirement documentation describes how individual requirements meet the business needs for the project. Option D: Requirement traceability 90 matrix gives high level requirement to more detailed requirement. 91. You are determining project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. All of the following will be useful inputs to you, except: A. B. C.

D. Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets Activity resource requirements Project organization charts Answer: D Explanation: Develop Human Resource Plan is the process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan. Inputs to this process are activity resource requirements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. However, project organization charts are an output. 91 92. The subcontracting requirements for machining high-value equipment are very demanding. Hence, you have determined the technical criteria to evaluate the sellers. This is an example of: A.

B. C. D. Objective evaluation criteria Source selection criteria Statement of work Work breakdown structure Answer: B Explanation: Selection criteria are developed and used to rate or score seller proposals, and can be objective or subjective. 92 What is the float of activity 5? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. -1

Answer: A Explanation: The lengths of different paths are: Start -> 1 -> 2 -> End: 10 Start -> 3 -> 5 -> End: 11 Start -> 4 -> 5 -> End: 12 Since the longest path is Start -> 4 -> 5 -> End; this is the critical path. Activity 5 lies on the critical path; hence the slack for task 5 is "0". 93 94. You have been assigned seven project team members, and one more person will be joining next week. Once the new person joins, the number of communication channels will increase by: A. B. C. D.

0 8 12 20 Answer: B Explanation: For calculating the number of communication channels, the formula used is: N = n (n-1) / 2. So, in this instance, number of communication channels with 8 people = 8*(8 -1) / 2 = (8*7) / 2= 28. Number of communication channels with 9 people = 9* (9 - 1) / 2 = (9*8) / 2= 36 So, the communication channels will increase by: 36 - 28 = 8. (Did you forget to include yourself?) 94 95. Your company has recently been awarded a contract by the government to reconstruct houses devastated by an earthquake. In this context, the governments role will most likely provide the: A. B. C.

D. Project scope baseline Business case / Business need Project charter Project management plan Answer: C Explanation: Option C: Since the government is an external agency, and this is a "recently awarded" project as mentioned in the question, hence inputs (e.g. contract) from the government will help the project manager in creation of the project charter for the performing organization. Option A: Scope Baseline includes the Scope Statement, WBS and WBS Dictionary. So, this will be created later on after the project charter is finalized. Option B: Business Need/Business case for the project should be already established because the government has contracted out the work to your company. Option D: The project management plan is a planning document created after the project charter is approved. 95

96. Which of the following processes has the Stakeholder Register as the output? A. B. C. D. Plan Stakeholder Management Identify Stakeholders Plan Human Resources Develop Business Requirements Answer: B Explanation: The key output for the Identify Stakeholders Process is the Stakeholder Register. Business Requirements are requirements that are analyzed, prioritized, and documented as they relate to the needs for the preforming organization. 96

97. Your risk calculations show there is a risk of overrunning the project scope and schedule targets to levels that are beyond the threshold limits determined in the project. To bring the level of risk to a level acceptable to your organization, you should: A. B. C. D. Consider using contingency reserves Decrease the project scope and increase the project schedule Talk with your sponsor about canceling the project Add in training costs Answer: A Explanation: Contingency reserves are needed to bring the risk of overrunning stated project objectives to a level acceptable to the organization. 97

98. You are managing a small project with five team members working parttime. At the beginning of every week, you allocate work to all the team members. This is an example of: A. Work Authorization System B. Improper planning because team members do not know in advance what needs to be done at what time C. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (e.g. RACI) D. Project schedule management Answer: A Explanation: A work authorization system is a collection of formal documented procedures that specifies how project work is authorized to ensure that work is done by the identified organization at the right time and in the proper sequence. 98 99. After joining as a stand-in project manager for an ongoing project, you are informed by the team that certain features are added to the deliverable that were not requested by the customer, to earn the customers appreciation. In this situation: A. You are concerned, because the project team is gold-plating

B. You are happy, because the project will exceed customer expectations C. You are concerned that this is going to increase the project size D. You are undecided about the increase in the quality metrics of the project Answer: A Explanation: You should be concerned because the project team is gold-plating, which is not a recommended project management practice. Please note that adding extra functionality beyond project scope is not recommended by PMI, since a project is supposed to deliver what is defined in its scope. Similarly, one cannot request for additional sizing for the project because the customer had never asked for the additional requirements. 99 100. Project performance must be monitored and measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. All the following processes are performed during monitoring and controlling, except: A. B.

C. D. Validate Scope Control Risks Control Stakeholder Management Perform Quality Assurance Answer: D Explanation: Perform Quality Assurance is a process in the Executing Process group. 100 101. Some of the benefits of a well-constructed project scope statement include all, except: A. Provides a documented basis for making future project decisions B. Develops common understanding of project scope among stakeholders C. Provides knowledge of project justification, deliverables, and objectives D. Provides a basis for time and cost estimates

Answer: D Explanation: Work breakdown structure (which is an output from Create WBS process) helps in providing a basis for time and cost estimates. All the remaining are benefits of a well-constructed project scope statement. 101 102. You are managing a high priority project, requiring more than 1,000 team members. During human resource planning, you would like to apply proven principles to shorten the time needed to create a human resource plan to ensure you are when and how human resource requirements will be met. Which of the following subsidiary plan does this describe? A. B. C. D. Stakeholder register Linear Resource Chart

Staffing management plan Stakeholder allocation plan Answer: C Explanation: The staffing management plan describes when and how the human resource requirements will be met. 102 103. The following is the data for a CPIF project you are managing: Target cost is $ 100,000; Actual cost is $ 80,000; Target fee is $ 20,000; Maximum fee is $ 25,000; Sharing ratio is 60:40. What should be the final price of the contract? A. $ 100,000 B. $ 108,000 C. $ 105,000 D. $ 92,000 Answer: C Explanation: Target cost (TC) = $ 100,000

Target fee (TF) = $ 20,000 Maximum fee = $ 25,000 Sharing ratio=60:40 Actual fee (AF) = {(TC - AC) * SSR} + TF = {($ 100,000 - $ 80,000) * 40%} + $ 20,000 = $ 20,000 * 40% + $ 20,000 = $ 28,000, Although the actual fee is more than the maximum fee, the maximum fee ($ 25,000) only is payable. So, final price = AC + AF = $ 80,000 + $ 25,000 = $ 105,000 103 104. Of the following documents, all of which are updated during the Control Schedule process, which is NOT a part of the project management plan? A. B. C. D. Schedule baseline Cost baseline Schedule management plan

Schedule data Answer: D Explanation: Elements of the project management plan that may be updated include, but are not limited to, schedule baseline, schedule management plan, and cost baseline. Schedule data is the project document that gets updated as an output to the Control Schedule process. 104 105. What are the outputs for the Plan Scope Management Plan? A. B. C. D. WBS, WBS Dictionary, Project Documents updates Scope Management Plan, WBS Requirements Traceability Matrix, Project Scope Statement Scope Management Plan, Requirements Management Plan

Answer: D Explanation: Remember, all the scope baseline information is incorporated into the Scope Management Plan. Understanding the sequence of the performing the processes is key to these types of questions. 105 106. As part of your duties as a project manager, you provide confidential company data to a vendor. In this context, which of the following precautions should you take? A. Insist that the vendor signs a non-disclosure agreement after you release the sensitive information. B. Make sure that the vendor receives all the sensitive information in time. C. Ensure that the vendor signs non-disclosure agreement before you release the sensitive information. D. Monitor the vendor in order to prevent her from sharing the information with her competitors Answer: C Explanation: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires a project manager not to disclose sensitive or confidential information. But, at times, an organization has a legitimate need to disclose

confidential information to vendors, governmental agencies, or others. When disclosing confidential or sensitive information, it is the responsibility of the project manager to ensure that proper nondisclosure agreements are signed 106 prior to the disclosure of the sensitive information. 107. As the project manager at a small software development company, you are determining the possible costs to complete project activities. This is done as part of which process? A. B. C. D. Variance Analysis Estimate Costs Determine Budget Estimate Procurement Costs

Answer: B Explanation: Estimate Costs is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities. Cost trade-offs and risks must be considered, such as make versus buy, buy versus lease, and the sharing of resources in order to achieve optimal costs for the project. 107 108. You have created a spreadsheet that shows cumulative cost at any particular point of time in the project duration. Your director wants to review the project costs and you decide to make a presentation. Cumulative costs plotted against time may be shown in which report? A. B. C. D. S-curve Histogram Just in Time, LEAN, Kanban Charts

Pareto diagram Answer: A Explanation: S-curve is a graphic display of cumulative costs, labor hours, percentage of work, or other quantities, plotted against time. The name derives from the S-like shape of the curve. 108 109. Ideally, when should a project manager begin working on a project? A. B. C. D. As soon as a possible After the Project Charter has been approved When the WBS is completed At any time during the project life cycle, depending on requirements

Answer: A Explanation: A project manager is identified and assigned as early in the project as is feasible. NOTE: THE PROJECT MANAGER IF FORMALLY ASSIGNED WHEN THE PROJECT CHARTER HAS BEEN APPROVED! 109 110. All the following statements about "Quality" and "Grade" are true, except: A. Grade is a rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics. B. Low quality product may be of high grade. C. Low grade products may have high quality levels. D. It is a problem if the product is of high quality and low grade. Answer: D Explanation: Grade is a category assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics. While a quality level that fails to meet quality requirements is always a problem, low grade may not be. For example, a software product can be of high quality (no obvious defects, readable manual) and

low grade (a limited number of features), or of low quality (many defects, poorly organized user documentation) and high grade (numerous features). 110 111. ABC company has recently launched a new model of their car in the market and the market response has been overwhelming. Sales have gone up to a level much higher than what the company anticipated. To cater to the increased market demand, the company plans to start a project to create a new assembly line for the cars. Who is the end user? A. B. C. D. Project Manager and Project Management Staff People who may buy the cars in the future Project Sponsor who provides funding The assembly line worker who is going to work on the new assembly line being created

Answer: D Explanation: Customers refer to the entity acquiring the project`s product, and users refer to those who will directly utilize the project`s product. 111 112. Your project is very critical for the company and must be completed within six months. The project charter has been signed, but the project scope statement is not yet prepared. Management asks you to go ahead without a scope statement. What should you do? A. Refuse to work on the project, because the management is not following standard project management practices. B. To save time, you should start the project with inputs from the project charter. C. Try to meet with management to discuss problems you may face if you start the project without a scope statement. D. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and issue a risk memo. Answer: C Explanation: Option C: This is the best available alternative. Without the scope statement, you do not have a good understanding of the project justification,

product, or project deliverables and project objectives. Also, you do not have all the inputs for the scope definition and for the creation of work breakdown structure (WBS). The best option is to talk to the management about the problems likely to be faced if you start a project without a scope statement. Option A: This is an extreme step and is not recommended. Option B: This will pose problems. For example, you will not be able to create a WBS without the help of a scope statement. Option D: This is an 112 extreme measure and is not recommended. 113. Ten team members were assigned in advance to your project. This pre-assignment could be because of all the following reasons, except: A. B. C. D. Specific people were promised as part of a competitive proposal. Suitable people volunteered to work on the project. Staff assignments were defined in the project charter.

The project was dependent on the expertise of the pre-assigned persons Answer: B Explanation: When project team members were selected in advance, they would be considered pre-assigned. This situation could occur if the project was the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal, if the project was dependent upon the expertise of particular persons, or if some staff assignments were defined within the project charter. 113 114. A contract which includes features of cost reimbursable and fixed price types of contract is a: A. B. C. D. Fixed price plus incentive fee contract

Cost plus award fee contract Time and material contract Cost plus fixed fee contract Answer: C Explanation: Time and material contracts are a hybrid type of contractual arrangements that contain aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts. Option A: This type of contracts involves fixedprice arrangement that allows for deviation from performance, with financial incentives tied to achieving agreed metrics. Option B: In this type of contracts, the seller is reimbursed for all legitimate costs, but the majority of the fee is only earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria defined and incorporated into the contract. Option D: In this type of contracts, the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work, and receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs. 114 115. Activity attributes extend the description of the activities in the activity list. These activity attributes are inputs to all the following processes, except:

A. B. C. D. Sequence Activities Define Activities Estimate Activity Resources Estimate Activity Durations Answer: B Explanation: Activity attributes are outputs from the Define Activities process and inputs for Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, and Develop Schedule processes, Again, knowing the sequence of the Planning Processes is key to answering these questions on the exam. 115 116. Identify Stakeholders is the process to identify all people or organizations impacted by the project and to document:

A. Stakeholder influence, interest, involvement, interdependency, and impact on project success B. Their needs and address issues as they occur C. Project status reports, progress measurements and forecasts D. Stakeholder needs and define a communication approach Answer: A Explanation: Option A: (This is the correct answer). Project stakeholders are persons or organizations such as customers, sponsors, the performing organization, and the public that are actively involved in the project. Option B: Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process to communicate and work with stakeholders to meet their needs and address issues as they occur. Option C: Report Performance is the process to collect and distribute performance information, including status reports, progress measurements and forecasts. Option D: Plan Communications is the process to determine the project stakeholder information needs and define a communication approach. 116 117. You are a member of the selection committee, which is appointed to oversee the awarding of an important contract. In this context, all of the

following can be treated as conflict of interest situations, except: A. Your friend bids for the contract and you inform the committee and the project sponsor about it. B. Your relative bids for the contract and you do not inform the project sponsor about it. C. Your close friend bids for the contract and you refrain from participating in the contract awarding decision process without informing your sponsor. D. Your friend bids for the contract and you make sure the contract is awarded to him. Answer: A Explanation: Conflict of interest arises when personal interests outweigh professional considerations. A person`s associations and affiliations with others can also lead to conflict of interest. Please note that if there is a conflict of interest situation, please inform the appropriate stakeholders and distance yourself from the conflict situation, if possible. 117 118. You have just completed drafting your Project Scope Statement with your Project Management Staff, what is the next step? A.

B. C. D. Collect Requirements Plan Stakeholder Management Create WBS Define Scope Answer: C Explanation: Create WBS is the next processwith the other Scope outputs, they all make up the Scope Baseline. 118 119. Your company is a pioneer in the construction industry. The government recently floated a tender for setting up a new airport. Since you do not have all the requisite skills within the company, you enter into a joint venture with a leading airport construction company to bid jointly for the government contract. This is an example of:

A. B. C. D. Risk exploitation Risk sharing Risk enhancing Risk mitigating Answer: B Explanation: Opportunities: E.S.E.A. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities (share): Sharing a positive risk involves allocating some or all of the ownership to a third party who is best able to capture the opportunity for the benefit of the project. Examples of sharing actions include forming risk-sharing partnerships, teams, special-purpose companies, or joint ventures, which can be established with the express purpose of taking advantage of the opportunity so that all parties gain from their actions. 119 120. Which of the following relates to Physiological, Safety, Social Esteem,

Self-Actualization? A. B. C. D. Maslows Hierarchy of Needs Herzbergs Hygiene Theory MacGregors Theory Y Hersey/Blanchard Situational Leadership II Answer: A Explanation: Its important to know all motivation theorist, and understand their theories for the exam. Maslow, McClelland, Herzberg, Vroom, Hersey/Blanchard, MacGregor, Ouichi. 120 121. Your company has implemented ISO standards for quality. In this context, which of the following statements regarding quality is NOT

accurate? A. Quality audits compare project deliverables against the product requirements as defined in the WBS. B. Process analysis identifies the needed improvements from organizational and technical standpoint. C. Perform Quality Control is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes. D. The Quality Management Plan describes how the Project Management Staff will implement the performing organization`s quality policy. Answer: A Explanation: A quality audit is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and 121 project policies, processes, and procedures. 122. You have reached the end of the design phase of your project. You decide to call a "phase end review" for obtaining authorization to close the design phase and initiate the next phase (i.e. execution phase) of your

project. Your manager disagrees with your suggestion. He wants a "kill point" to formally end the design phase of the project. In this context, you should: A. Disagree with your manager because you know that phase end reviews should be used at the end of each phase of the project B. Agree with your manager C. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor D. Take advice from a senior project manager about what should actually be done at the end of each phase of the project Answer: B Explanation: A phase-end represents a natural point to reassess the effort underway and to change or terminate the project if necessary. These points are referred to as phase exits, milestones, phase gates, decision gates, stage gates, decision gates, stage gates or kill points. 122 123. During the Validate Scope Process, you formalize acceptance of the project deliverables and keep the project focused on the business need for which it was undertaken. This should be done: A.

B. C. D. After the Final Kickoff Meeting At the end of the project Immediately after the Change Control Board approves changes After getting validated deliverables from the quality control process Answer: D Explanation: Validated deliverables are the deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness by the Perform Quality Control process (as per predefined acceptance criteria). They are an input to Validate Scope process. 123 124. You are in the process of determining the project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships for your team members. At the end of this process, you will define/create all of the following, except: A.

B. C. D. Project staff assignments Roles and responsibilities (i.e. RACI RAM) Project organization charts Staffing management plan Answer: A Explanation: Project staff assignments are an output from the "Acquire Project Team" process and not the Develop Human Resource Plan process. Note: RACI relates to Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform. 124 125. How do sole source contracts differ from single source contracts? A. Single source contracts are forms of non-competitive procurements, where as sole source contracts are forms of competitive procurements. B. Single source contracts are forms of competitive procurements, where as sole source contracts are forms of non-competitive procurements

C. In single source contracts, you (buyer) contract a seller because he is your preferred seller, where as in sole source contracts, you (buyer) contract a seller because there are no other sellers for your required procurement item. D. Unlike sole source contracts, single source contracts help an organization to save time because they do not involve procurement process before bids or proposals are received. Answer: C Explanation: The major difference between single source contracts and sole source contracts--though both are non-competitive forms of procurements-is that in single source contracts, contract is awarded to a seller because he is the organizations preferred seller, where as in sole source contracts, contract is awarded to a seller because there are no other sellers for the organizations required procurement item. Options A and B: Both types are forms of non-competitive procurements. Option D: 125 Sole source contracts help organizations save time. 126. Identifying and documenting interdependencies between the various project activities is done as part of which process? A.

B. C. D. Define Activities Estimate Activity Durations Sequence Activities Develop Schedule Answer: C Explanation: Sequence Activities is the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities. The key process output is the Project Schedule Network Diagram. 126 127. While identifying stakeholders, you plan to group the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project. You can do this by using a: A. B.

C. D. Power/interest grid Power/influence grid Influence/impact grid Salience model Answer: B Explanation: There are multiple classification models (for stakeholders) available including, but not limited to: Power/interest grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their level or concern (interest) regarding the project outcomes; Power/influence grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their active involvement (influence) in the project; Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (influence) in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project`s planning or execution (impact); and Salience model, describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate). 127

128. Your company asks you to manage a project of its subsidiary unit in another country. You quickly realize that workers in the subsidiary unit have poor work ethics as compared with that of your parent company. In this context, which of the following will be the most appropriate course of action? A. Ask your new team to emulate the work ethics of the teams of your parent concern. B. Take steps to change the work culture of your new team. C. Regard your new team as lazy and impose sanctions. D. Treat it as cultural differences, and try to determine ways to improve productivity. Answer: D Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires a project manager to address things with an open mind and accept the cultural and ethical diversity that exists between different countries. So, it is not the responsibility of the project manager to enforce the work-ethics of one`s own country on the people of another country. 128 129. What is the status of the project?

A. B. C. D. Behind schedule, but under budget Ahead of schedule, and under budget Ahead of schedule, but over budget Behind schedule, and over budget Answer: C Explanation: Earned value (EV) = The sum of the approved cost estimates for activities completed during a given period = Estimated cost of work that is completed after day 11 = $ 5,000 + $ 5,000 + $5,000*.50 = $ 12,500 (because Activity A, Activity B are complete, Activity C is 50% complete) Present value (PV) = Present work to be completed after day 11 = $ 5,000 + $ 5,000 + $ 5,000 * (1/5) (because at end of day 11, according to our plan, Activity A, Activity B should be complete; Activity C only one day out of 5 days should be complete, i.e. 20% complete ($ 1,000 of work should be done) = $ 11,000. Actual cost (AC) = Actual Cost of work completed = $ 13,000.

Schedule variance (SV) = EV - PV = $ 12,500 - $ 11,000 = $ 1,500 Since SV is positive, we are ahead of schedule. Cost variance (CV) = EV - AC = $ 12,500 - $ 13,000 = - $ 500 Since CV is negative, we are over budget. 129 130. You have identified disaster situations (e.g. floods, earthquakes, etc.) as potential risks. The project sponsor suggested that, at the project level, no steps could be taken to deal with such risks and recommended creation of a contingency reserve (with 5% of the project budget) which could be used in case of disaster situations. This is an example of: A. B. C. D. Risk mitigation Risk acceptance Risk avoidance

Risk transfer Answer: B Explanation: THREATS: A.T.M.A. Accept: This strategy is adopted because it is often not possible to eliminate all threats from a project. This strategy indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. The most common active acceptance strategy is to establish a contingency reserve, including amounts 130 of time, money, or resources to handle the risks when they turn into issues. 131. Your project involves creating a launch vehicle for NASA satellites. For successful project implementation, it is important to coordinate activities with other NASA operational groups to decrease uncertainty/confusion, and also divide your project into several phases to provide better project management control. To facilitate this, you should: A. B. C.

D. Break the project into several sub-projects. Adopt a life cycle approach to manage the project. Develop specific deliverables, which are approved by the sponsor. Create a very comprehensive project charter. Answer: B Explanation: A project life cycle is a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases whose name and number are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, the nature of the project itself, and its area of application. 131 132. In your pharmaceutical company, quality is an important criterion to determine project success. In this context, all the following are examples of cost of non-conformance, except: A. B.

C. D. Training Rework Loss of reputation Warranty Answer: A Explanation: Training is a cost of conformance. Cost of Quality: A method of determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. Prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance) include costs for quality planning, quality control (QC), and quality assurance to ensure compliance to requirements (i.e., training, QC systems, etc.). Failure costs (cost of non-conformance) include costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty work and waste, and loss of reputation. 132 133. As a project manager, you understand the importance of identifying

and documenting project risks. Which of the following statements is true: A. Risk identification occurs exclusively during Planning. B. Risk identification occurs during Monitoring and Controlling of the project. C. Risk identification occurs during Execution of the project. D. Risk identification can occur throughout the project, but comprehensive risk identification is performed during the Planning Process Group. Answer: D Explanation: Best answer. Comprehensive risk identification is done as part of the Planning Process Group. 133 134. The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline is referred to as: A. B. C. D.

Validate Scope Control Scope Monitoring and Controlling Project Work Scope Verifications Answer: B Explanation: Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline. 134 135. Motivating your team members is important for the success of the project. You understand from the HR manager that employees are motivated by self-esteem, recognition, and self-actualization. To which theory is the HR manager referring? A. B. C. D.

Theory Y Learning curve theory Herzberg`s theory Maslow`s Hierarchy of Needs Answer: D Explanation: Abraham Maslow`s hierarchy of needs states that different people are at different levels in the need hierarchy. Usually people start out looking for physiological needs and then progressively move up the needs hierarchy. 135 136. During the Close Procurements process, you should attend to all the following, except: A. Perform a structured review of processes from plan purchases and acquisitions through contract closure. B. Perform procurement performance reviews to determine seller`s

progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract. C. Identify successes and failures that warrant recognition to prepare or administer procurement contracts in the future. D. Use procurement audits as a technique. Answer: B Explanation: Option B is ideally performed in Control Procurements Process. Options A, C, and D: These are performed as part of Close Procurements process. 136 137. During the Control Schedule Process, changes to project schedule can result in change requests to: A. B. C. D. Schedule baseline

Components of project plan Activity attributes Schedule baseline and/or components of Project Management Plan Answer: D Explanation: Best answer. Schedule variance analysis along with review of progress reports, results of performance measures and modifications to the project schedule can result in change requests to the schedule baseline and/or to other components of project management plan. 137 138. You are the project manager of a $ 20 million project, and you are struggling to manage the needs of all the stakeholders. So, you decide to classify the stakeholders, which will enable you to focus on the relationships necessary to ensure the success of the project. All the following are valid ways to classify stakeholders EXCEPT: A. B. C.

D. According to Interest According to Organization hierarchy According to Involvement According to Influence Answer: B Explanation: (I words . Most projects will have a large number of stakeholders. As the project manager`s time is limited and must be used as efficiently as possible, these stakeholders should be classified according to their interest, influence, and involvement in the project. This enables the project manager to focus on the relationships necessary to ensure the success of the project. 138 139. Your company has awarded a contract to a vendor. After some time, you realize that the vendor representative is your old buddy from school. You inform this to your senior management, but they insist that you continue to administer the contra ct. So, to avoid any accusations of bias in this

conflict of interest situation, you should: A. Document all the decisions taken by you on the activities performed by the vendor. B. Refrain from administering the contract. C. Resign from the project. D. Remind your senior management of conflict of interest. Answer: A Explanation: In case of conflict of interest situations, the project manager should inform senior management, and distance oneself from the conflict of interest situation, if possible. However, in this context, as the senior management insists and the project manager has to continue in the current position, appropriate documentation can help in preventing any accusation of bias in conflict of interest situations. Option B and Option D are not relevant you had already mentioned about the conflict of interest situation to the senior management and got approval to continue with the project. Option C is an 139 extreme step which need not be taken at this time. 140. You use a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type to develop resource-limited schedules. This hierarchical structure is also called a:

A. B. C. D. Business Requirements/Business Needs Work Breakdown Structure Resource Breakdown Structure Graphical Statement of Work (SOW) Answer: C Explanation: Resource breakdown structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type used in resource leveling schedules and to develop resource-limited schedules, and which may be used to identify and analyze project human resource assignments. 140 141. The Initiating Process Group consists of processes that facilitate the formal authorization to start a new project or a project phase. All the

following should be performed during Initiating, except: A. B. C. D. Develop the Project Charter Adopt a Project Life Cycle Stakeholder Analysis Create the Project Scope Statement Answer: D Explanation: Project Scope Statement is created during the Planning Process Group. 141 142. The Project Management Staff are unable to determine the monetary value for risk impacts on your construction project. One of the team members suggests that you just develop a list of risks to watch out for. However, you tell that you still can prioritize the risks by:

A. B. C. D. Performing a Monte Carlo simulation Performing Qualitative Risk Analysis Performing Quantitative Risk Analysis Listing them as Residual Risks Answer: B Explanation: Qualitative Risk Analysis ranks risks subjectively (e.g. on a scale from 1-10). 142 143. To resolve conflicts in your project, you can use all the following conflict resolution methods, except: A. B. C.

D. Collaborating Smoothing Avoiding Directing Answer: D Explanation: Directing is not a method for conflict resolution. Forcing would be the closest to directing but is not listed as an option. 143 144. You have recently taken over a project from another project manager, who left the company. The project has a CPI of .9 and an SPI of .6, but senior management was not informed. What should you do FIRST? A. Do not continue to manage the project. B. Update the management with the status of the project. C. Bring the project on schedule and then inform the management about the status of the project. D. Do crashing and fast-tracking of the project.

Answer: B Explanation: As per the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, a project manager should always provide true account of information in an appropriate manner at appropriate times. Option A: This is an extreme step and should not be taken now. Option B: This is the correct answer; the management should be informed about the project status. Option C: This is unethical - you should not withhold information from appropriate stakeholders. Option D: Crashing would further increase costs and fast-tracking may increase risks: this may adversely impact the project status, and should be done only after informing the management. 144 145. You note that the ability to impact/influence the cost of a project effectively is typically: A. B. C. D. Greatest at the early stages of the project.

Greatest at the middle of the project. Greatest at the project closure stage. Constant throughout forming, storming, norming, and performing Answer: A Explanation: The ability to influence cost is greatest at the early stages of the project, making early scope definition critical. 145 146. A project team member informs you that a particular task is taking much more time than estimated. You are surprised because you, had not anticipated this delay, and you ask for status reports and forecasts from all project team members. Which Process Group are you in? A. B. C. D. Initiating

Executing Monitoring and Controlling Planning Answer: C Explanation: Control Communications is the process of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts, etc. 146 147. Which of the following relates to type of power the Project Manager might have: A. B. C. D. Autocratic, democratic, Laissez Fair Formal, Reward, Penalty, Expert, Referent Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

Planning Answer: B Explanation: Formal, Reward, & Penalty (Formal/legitimate: based on position in organization). Expert, Referent (based on reputation/ credibility). 147 148. Frequent heated discussions with your colleague over an issue are creating a hostile environment. Eventually he doesnt even answer your emails or voice mails. He is exhibiting: A. B. C. D. Problem solving Avoiding (Withdrawing) Forcing Confronting

Answer: B Explanation: Avoid the person; avoid the problem 148 149. Six months into your project, your management lets you know you will receive an incentive of $ 5,000, if you complete the project one month ahead of schedule. When closing the project ahead of schedule, your team informs you the product contains a minor flaw and may not fully satisfy the customer`s needs. However, rectification of the minor flaw will require lot of changes and take 2 more months. In this context, you will: A. B. C. D. Close out the project. Review the situation with your customer and sponsor. Rectify the flaw and then close out the project. Close the project and then inform the sponsor about the flaw.

Answer: B Explanation: Option B: Since this is a "minor flaw," but rectification of that flaw would take a long time, it is better to discuss with the sponsor and customer and get their inputs. Option A and Option D: This is unethical - the project manager should definitely complete the project as per the specifications before closing the project. Option C: Rectification of a minor flaw can lead to delay of 2 months in the project: so, the project manager should first inform the 149 sponsor and customer before rectification of the flaw. 150. Which of the following is not in the correct sequence? A. Validate Scope, Close Procurements, Close Project or Phase B. Kickoff Meeting, Acquire Project Team, Conduct Procurements C. Quantitative Risk Analysis, Risk Response Planning, Procurement Management Plan, Project Management Plan finalization for approval, Project Management Plan sign off, Kickoff Meeting D. Cost Estimates, Budget, Cost Management Plan, Quality Management Plan

Answer: D Explanation: Cost Management Plan should be first in option D. 150 151. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your organization. Your job responsibility is to: A. Manage the operational activities in the company . B. Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual projects . C. Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training, providing software, standardizing policies, etc. D. Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project. Answer: C Explanation: A Project Management Office (PMO) is an organizational body or entity tasked with various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain. The responsibilities of a PMO can range from providing project management support functions to actually being responsible for the direct management of a project.

151 152. As a project manager, you are aware that changes are bound to occur during project execution. While you are monitoring and controlling changes, you use the term project scope creep. What does the term refer to? A. B. C. D. Uncontrolled changes Controlled changes Manageable changes Unmanageable changes Answer: A Explanation: Uncontrolled changes are often referred to as project scope creep.

152 153. All of the following relate to negotiating skills you should have, except: A. B. C. D. Deadline, missing man, good guy/bad guy, & fait accompli Negotiate on the merits Joint Problem Solving Dont dig into your position, improve (or at least not damage) the relationship Answer: A Explanation: These are actually negotiating tactics that may be used against you! 153

154. You are documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers. Some tools you can use include all the following, except: A. B. C. D. Make or buy analysis Bidder conferences Expert judgment Contract types Answer: B Explanation: Option B: This is the correct answer. Documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers are performed as part of the Plan Procurements process. Bidder conferences are a technique used in Conduct Procurements process. Make- or buy- analysis, expert judgment, and contract types specified in the options A, C, and D respectively are some of

the tools and techniques used in Plan Procurements process. 154 155. The following provides information on a particular task in your project: Early Start (ES): 25 days Late Start (LS): 30 days Early Finish (EF): 50 days Late Finish (LF): 55 days Based on this information, you can deduce that: A. The activity is on the critical path. B. The project may get delayed. C. The project float is 5 days. D. The activity is not on the critical path. Answer: D Explanation: Option D: This is the correct option, as the task is not on the critical path. Option A: Since LS - ES = LF - EF = 5 days, the task has a slack of 5 days; hence this task cannot be on the critical path. Option B: There is no information in the question that suggests that the project may get delayed. Option C: The project float is the amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed date. Since the externally imposed date is not

mentioned, we cannot determine the project float. 155 156. You have just discovered a risk during your project that requires an immediate corrective action. During which Project Risk Management Process is this action performed? A. B. C. D. Plan Risk Management Risk Reassessment Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis Control Risks Answer: D Explanation: Control Risks is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout

the project. 156 157. As a project manager, you use work authorization system to assign and allocate work to your team members in the proper sequence. In this context, the primary purpose of the work authorization system is to: A. B. C. D. Prevent team members from starting the work without your permission. Prevent scope creep. Prevent unnecessary changes to project scope. Clarify and initiate the work for each work package. Answer: D Explanation: Work authorization system: A subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures that defines how project work will be authorized (committed) to

ensure that the work is done by the identified organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence. It includes the steps, documents, tracking system, and defined approval levels needed to issue work authorizations. 157 158. Your project is facing attrition of project resources, and you would like to document processes carefully to ensure business continuity in the future. Certain costs will have to be incurred for this purpose. What type of costs are they? A. B. C. D. Costs of nonconformance Emotional Intelligence-related costs Failure costs Prevention costs

Answer: D Explanation: Proactive is necessary. 158 159. You are in the process of obtaining seller responses to select a seller. You conduct a bidder conference, where your primary objective is to: A. B. C. D. Ensure that sellers have a clear understanding of the proposal. Determine who would be qualified sellers for bidding. Evaluate the interest level of sellers. Use evaluation criteria to select sellers. Answer: A Explanation: Bidder conferences are meetings with all prospective sellers and buyers prior to submittal of a bid or proposal. They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common

understanding of the procurement (both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment. 159 160. You would like to use project management best practices to sequence the activities for your road construction project. Which of the following are based on preferred dependencies and/or best practices? A. B. C. D. Mandatory dependencies Discretionary dependencies Industry norms Best Practice standards for ISO 9001 certification Answer: B Explanation: Discretionary dependencies are established based

on the knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented, since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options. 160 161. During the Plan Risk Management process, you define how to conduct risk management activities for a project because careful and explicit planning enhances the probability of success for the subsequent risk management processes. Which of the following is NOT done during Plan Risk Management? A. Identify Risks B. Establish an agreed-upon basis for evaluating risk C. Ensure that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are commensurate with both the risks and the importance of the project D. Provide sufficient resources and time for risk management activities Answer: A Explanation: Planning risk management processes is important to ensure that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are

commensurate with both the risks and the importance of the project to the organization. Planning is also important to provide sufficient resources and time for risk management activities, and to establish an agreed-upon basis for evaluating risks. 161 162. The Project Management Plan is the most important planning document produced with inputs from several subsidiary processes. In which of the following Processes is the project management plan NOT used as an Input? A. B. C. D. Monitor and Control Project Work Develop Project Charter Perform Integrated Change Control Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer: B Explanation: Develop Project Management Plan is the process of documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans. The Project Charter is an Input to the Project Management Plan, but not vice versa.. 162 163. You are doing a structured review to determine whether product activities comply with organizational and project policies. This is conducted as part of (a) ________________, and is performed during (b) _____________ process. A. B. C. D. (a) Quality audit (b) Quality Assurance (a) Quality audit (b) Quality Control (a) Process analysis (b) Quality Assurance

(a) Process analysis (b) Quality Control Answer: A Explanation: Quality audit is a structured, independent review performed to determine whether product activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. Quality audits is a technique used during the Perform Quality Assurance process. 163 164. When you (the buyer) control a contract, you should pay attention to all the following, except: A. Ensure that contractual obligations are met. B. Apply appropriate project management processes to the contractual relationship and integrate the outputs from these processes to the overall management of the project. C. Monitor payments to the seller, as per the contract. D. Perform regular procurement audits. Answer: D Explanation: A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process originating from Plan Procurements process through

Control Procurements Process. This is one of the tools and techniques used in Close Procurements process. 164 165. You are working on a 12 month assignment to build a website with 4000 pages for $ 1,000,000. You are supposed to spend $ 250,000 every 3 months. After 6 months, you determine that only $ 400,000 of work is completed and cost incurred is $ 800,000. What is the ETC? A. B. C. D. $ 2,000,000 $ 1,500,000 $ 1,000,000 $ 1,200,000 Answer: D Explanation: The default value of EAC (assuming current

variances are typical) is calculated as below: EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) / CPI = $800,000 + ($ 1,000,000 - $ 400,000)/($ 400,000 / $ 800,000) = $ 800,000 + ($ 600,000/0.5) = $ 2,000,000. So, ETC = EAC AC = $ 2,000,000 - $ 800,000 = $ 1,200,000 165 166. Your project is complete and you are performing project closure activities. In this context, what should you do LAST? A. B. C. D. Creating final product, service, or result transition Releasing project resources working on the project Updating organizational process assets Accepting deliverables Answer: B Explanation: Final product, service, or result transition,

organizational process assets updates are outputs of the Close Project or Phase and accepted deliverables are its inputs. However, even Close Project will need resources (e.g. people, equipment, etc). Hence, releasing of project resources should happen at the very end of the Close Project or Phase. 166 167. While preparing the schedule for the project activities, you find there is very limited information on activity durations, but you may be able to obtain some information from others within you company. Which estimating tool do you use? A. B. C. D. Three-point estimates Parametric estimating Quantitative estimating

Analogous estimating Answer: D Explanation: Analogous estimating may use parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity, from a previous, similar project, as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project. Analogous duration estimating is frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project, for example, in the early phases of a project. Analogous estimating uses historical information and expert judgment. 167 168. You are a retail company which routinely buys goods from foreign countries. Since currency fluctuation is an important risk, you keep all other factors constant and try to find out how much your project will be impacted if the currency rate fluctuates by 5%, 10%, 20% or 25%. This helps you determine appropriate risk response. This can also be effectively shown using: A. B.

C. D. Beta probability distributions Expected monetary value analysis Tornado diagram Simulation Answer: C Explanation: Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. One typical display of sensitivity analysis is the tornado diagram, which is useful for comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable. 168 169. In your project, you are defining and documenting stakeholders` needs to meet the project objectives. You know this is very important as the

project`s success is directly influenced by the care taken during this process. You should be very diligent when you: A. B. C. D. Identify Stakeholders Collect Requirements Create Project Charter Create Project Management Plan Answer: B Explanation: Collect Requirements is the process of defining and documenting stakeholders` needs to meet the project objectives. The stakeholders have already been identified. The project`s success is directly influenced by the care taken in capturing and managing project and product requirements. Requirements include the quantified and documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders. 169

170. You need to gather information, but certain people have expressed their opinions in a way that seems to bias objectivity. You might try: A. B. C. D. Narrowing the number of sponsors The Delphi technique Applying Parkinsons Law Compromising Answer: B Explanation: Anonymous method for gathering information 170 171. A documented direction to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks is

called: A. B. C. D. Corrective action Preventive action Defect repair Risk transference Answer: B Explanation: Preventive action: A documented direction to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks. 171 172. You are monitoring the technical performance of your website. Past data on the number of users and their experience helps you forecast how your website would perform if the number of users increases in the future.

This is an example of: A. B. C. D. Design of experiments Control chart Organizational process assets Trend analysis Answer: D Explanation: Trend analysis is performed using run charts and involves mathematical techniques to forecast future outcomes based on historical results. Trend analysis is often used to monitor technical performance, i.e, how many errors or defects have been identified, and how many remain uncorrected and cost and schedule performance, i.e., how many activities per period were completed with significant variances. 172

173. When conducting procurement negotiations, all the following steps should be followed, except A. Project manager leads negotiating process B. Subjects covered may include responsibilities, authority to make changes, applicable terms, and governing law. C. For complex items, contract negotiation may be an independent process with inputs & outputs of their own. D. Negotiations should clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases. Answer: A Explanation: The project manager may not be the lead negotiator on procurements. The project manager and other members of the Project Management Staff may be present during negotiations to provide assistance, and if needed to add clarification on the projects technical, quality, and management requirements. 173 174. As a project manager, you are required to produce project performance reports on a regular basis, your project`s Budget at Completion is $750,000, planned value is $100,000, schedule variance is

$30,000, and cost variance is $50,000. What is the percentage complete and estimate at completion in your project? A. B. C. D. 18%, $ 500,000 17.33%, $ 461,538 17.8%, $ 437,500 18%, $ 437,500 Answer: B Explanation: SV = EV PV EV = SV + PV = 30,000 + 100,000 = 130,000 CV= EV AC AC = EV- CV =130,000 50,000 = 80,000 Percentage Complete = EV/BAC x 100

= 130,000/750,000x100 = 17.33% CPI=EV/AC = 130,000 / 80,000 =1.625 EAC = AC + (BAC-EV) / CPI = 80,000 + (750,000 130,000) / 1.625 = 80,000 + (620,000) / 1.625 = 461,538 174 175. Which of the following processes occur in the Planning Process Group? A. B. C. D. Identify Risks Manage Stakeholders Engagement Acquire Project Team

Identify Stakeholders Answer: A Explanation: Only Identify Risks occurs during Planning Process Group. 175 176. You have discovered that a deviation from the schedule baseline has occurred. You want to determine the reason and level of variance relative to the schedule baseline so that corrective action can be taken. Which of the following tools would you use for this purpose? A. B. C. D. Scheduling tool Performance reviews What-If Scenario analysis

Variance analysis Answer: D Explanation: Variance analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of variance relative to the schedule baseline and decide whether corrective or preventive action is required. 176 177. When your company buys computers from Dell, you also pay extra for a three-year warranty which ensures that any manufacturing defects will be covered. The risk response strategy used is: A. B. C. D. Exploit Avoid Mitigate

Transfer Answer: D Explanation: Transfer. Risk transfer requires shifting some or all of the negative impact of a threat, along with ownership of the response, to a third party Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds, warranties, guarantees, etc. 177 178. You are performing several actions to execute the project management plan and to complete the work defined in the Project Scope Statement. You are: A. Taking corrective or preventive action to control the project performance B. Settling or closing any contract agreement established for the project C. Creating a document that will formally authorize the project D. Collecting work performance information about the completion status of the deliverables and what has been accomplished Answer: D Explanation: Option D: You are in Executing. Work

performance information, about the completion status of the deliverables and what has been accomplished, is collected as part of project execution and is fed into the performance reporting process. Option A: This is done as part of the Monitor and Control Project Worknot during the project execution phase. Option B: This is done as part of the Close Procurements, which is part of the project closure activities. 178 179. Your quality process did not meet the four sigma requirements desired by your customer. So, some of your products were rejected and there is a possibility that you would not receive repeat business from the customer. From a quality perspective, the costs associated with the rejected products can also be categorized as: A. B. C. D. Cost of conformance

Customer retention costs Failure costs Performance costs Answer: C Explanation: Failure costs (cost of non-conformance) include costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant; costs of warranty work and waste; and costs due to loss of reputation. 179 180. In which Process Group will approved changes be implemented? A. B. C. D. Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring and Controlling Process Group Closing Process Group

Answer: B Explanation: The Executing Process Group consists of those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications, and includes implementing changes approved by the Change Control Board. 180 181. What is the to-complete performance index (TCPI) based on the given data: Budget at completion of the project = 700,000 Cost variance of the project = 25,000 Earned value of the project = 200,000 Estimate to Complete has now been revised to 425,000 A. B. C. D. 0.9

1.176 1.5 -1.5 Answer: B Explanation: CV = EV - AC, 200,000 - 25,000 =175,000 EAC = AC + ETC EAC = 175000 + 425000 EAC = 600,000 AC = EV - CV TCP I = BAC EV / EAC - AC = (700,000 - 200,000) / (600,000 - 175,000) = 500,000 / 425000 = 1.176 181 182. You have just completed the project. While reviewing the costs, you observed that most of the project`s budget was utilized for activities

performed in processes relating to one particular process group. The Process Group where most project expenditures are typically made is: A. B. C. D. Planning Process Group Executing Process Group Monitoring and Controlling Process Group Closing Process Group Answer: B Explanation: A large portion of the project`s budget will be expended in performing the Executing Process Group processes. 182 183. The concepts of "Zero Defects" and "Do It Right First Time" were formulated by: A.

B. C. D. Ouichi Deming Crosby Juran Answer: C Explanation: Philip Crosby defined quality as "Zero Defects" and "Right First Time". 183 184. A new project manager in your organization, is ready to enter into a contract, but is unsure of the type of contract she should select. Which type of contract represents the highest risk to the seller? A. B.

C. D. Cost reimbursable plus incentive Fixed price Fixed price plus incentive Cost- reimbursable Answer: B Explanation: Notice it says Seller. Be careful! . Fixed price contracts involve setting a fixed total price for a defined product or service to be provided. Sellers are under highest risk as fixed-price contracts are legally obligated to complete such contracts, with possible financial damages, if they do not. 184 185. A red, yellow, green graph, that can be used to graphically illustrate the risks 9threats and opportunities) on the project, qualitatively is called the: A.

B. C. D. Risk Contingency Plan Risk Breakdown Structure Risk Register P I Matrix Answer: D Explanation: P-I Matrix (Probability Impact Matrix. 185 186. You are involved in manufacturing ball bearings using lathe machines. The ball bearings should have a diameter of 5.0 cms - allowable control limits are 4.95 cms to 5.05 cms. Measurements made after the end of the process for the bearings produced are: 4.96, 4.98, 5.01, 5.03, 5.02, 5.01, 5.03, 5.04, 5.02, 4.96, 4.98, and 5.00. What is your conclusion about the process?

A. B. C. D. Process is out of control and needs to be investigated Process is in control and adjustments are not required The tool needs to be changed or re-calibrated Process should be further measured using a run chart Answer: A Explanation: A process is considered out of control when a data point exceeds a control limit or if seven consecutive points (i.e. 5.01 or higher) are above or below the mean. 186 187. Your customer has decided to terminate your software project as the need for the product does not exist anymore. As a project manager, what step would you take first? A.

B. C. D. Call a meeting with the customer to see if they will reconsider Verify the request against the procurement documents Enter Close Procurements process Seek project sponsors advice Answer: C Explanation: Close Procurements is the process of completing each project procurement. Early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure that can result from a mutual agreement of both parties, from the default of one party, or for convenience of the buyer, if provided for in the contract. As per the termination clause, the buyer may have to compensate the seller for sellers preparations and for any completed and accepted work related to the terminated part of the contract. 187 188. You are working in the "vendor management" group in your company.

During Plan Procurements, you are involved with documenting the products, services, and results requirements and identifying potential sellers. You will be requiring all the following inputs during Plan Procurements, except: A. B. C. D. Procurement statements of work Requirements documentation Organizational process assets Project schedule Answer: A Explanation: Procurement statements of work is the output of Plan Procurements process. All the remaining are inputs required for Plan Procurements. 188

189. You have created a WBS and are ready to move on to the next process which is: A. B. C. D. Develop Project Scope Statement Create WBS Dictionary Plan Schedule Management Project Network Diagram Answer: C Explanation: Sequence matters on the exam. Know it well! 189 190. Which of the following will you undertake in the Monitoring and Controlling process of your project? A. Confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team

necessary to complete project assignments . B. Influencing the factors that could circumvent integrated change control so that only approved changes are implemented . C. Making relevant information available to project stakeholders as planned. D. Auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used . Answer: B Explanation: Monitoring and Controlling process group includes... influencing the factors that could circumvent integrated change control so only approved changes are implemented. 190 191. In PDM, which precedence relationship type is most commonly used? A. B. C. D.

FS (Finish to Start) FF (Finish to Finish) SS (Start to Start) SF (Start to Finish) Answer: A Explanation: In PDM, finish-to-start (FS) is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship. 191 192. If there is a fire, the risk response plan developed is to use a fire extinguisher. If the fire extinguisher cannot take care of the fire, you call the fire department. Calling the fire department is an example of: A. B. C. D. Secondary risk

Residual risk Fallback Plan Work around Answer: C Explanation: Several risk response strategies are available A fallback plan can be developed for implementation if the selected strategy turns out not to be fully effective, or if an accepted risk occurs. 192 193. A project manager wants to update a project management plan. For performance measurement purposes, you suggest the updated project management plan include: A. Performance reports and enterprise environmental factors. B. Expert judgment and change control meetings. C. Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates. D. Scope, quality management plan, cost, and schedule baselines. Answer: D Explanation: Option D: Best answer. Project management plan

elements that may be updated include, but are not limited to, schedule management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost performance baseline. 193 194. According to the 80/20 rule, 80 percent of the problems are because of 20 percent of the causes. To identify the most probable defects and to evaluate nonconformities, you do a rank ordering of the defects using: A. B. C. D. Statistical sampling Control chart Pareto diagrams Inspection Answer: C Explanation: A Pareto chart (also referred to as a Pareto

diagram) is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence. It shows how many defects are generated by type or category of identified cause. Rank ordering is used to focus on corrective action. 194 195. You create several project documents which will help your team manage the project. Which of the following is NOT an example of a project document? A. B. C. D. Schedule baseline Assumption log Roles and responsibilities matrix (RACI RAM) Risk register Answer: A Explanation: Schedule Baseline is part of project management

plan (and not included as part of project documents). All the others are included as part of project documents. 195 196. You have asked your programmer to give you an estimate of how long she will take to complete a software program. She mentions that she would most probably get the job finished in 2 hours. But if she runs into some issues doing unit-testing for the program, it could take her as long as 7 hours. On the other hand, she may be able use with to pick up a similar program from the organization process assets, in which case it will take her only 1 hour. What is the standard deviation? A. B. C. D. 2 hours 1 hour 3 hours

Cannot be determined from the provided information Answer: B Explanation: Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic Optimistic )/ 6 = (7 - A) / 6 = 1 196 Activity Xy (7 days)y Activity Z 197. Refer to the diagram above. Which of the following situations could this diagram most likely represent? A. Activity X (gathering requirements), and Activity Z (writing code) should be done in parallel. B. Activity Z (unit testing the code) should begin 7 days after finishing Activity X (writing the code). C. Activity X and Activity Z together have 7 days of slack.

D. Activity Z (plastering the floor) should begin 7 days after beginning Activity X (pouring concrete). Answer: B Explanation: This is used to depict a finish-to-start relationship where 7 days represents lag or, waiting time. Only Option B talks about a lag where, after completing Activity X, we must wait for 7 days before starting work on Activity Z. Note: Option A shows parallel relationship between the activities and not a lag. Option C shows slack and does not describe lag. Option D shows start-to-start relationship with a lag. 197 198. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager may be that of a: A. B. C. D. Project coordinator

Manager with considerable authority Support person Functional manager Answer: A Explanation: Weak matrices maintain many of the characteristics of a functional organization, and the role of a project manager is more of a coordinator or expediter than that of a true project manager. 198 199. A team member suggested the addition of a functionality, which he thinks, will improve customer satisfaction. This feature was listed as out of scope in the Project Charter. Your approach should be to: A. Allow for the functionality, because satisfying the customer is your objective. B. Disallow the new requirement, because it changes the project scope, and the Project Charter explicitly states this requirement is not to be included in the project. C. Make changes to the project plan to accommodate the new requirement.

D. Ask the customer for additional funding to implement the requirement . Answer: B Explanation: This is a team membernot a customer or sponsor. Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. Managing the project scope is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and what is not included in the project. 199 200. To get the work done, a supervisor threatens punishment and strictly supervises the work themselves. The supervisor is advocating: A. B. C. D. Theory Y (McGregor) Theory X (McGregor) Maslow`s hierarchy of needs

Theory Y (Ouichi) Answer: B Explanation: Douglas McGregor advocates that most workers can be categorized according to two theories: Theory X: This assumes that the workers are inherently lazy and require supervision. Theory Y: The average worker finds physical and mental effort on the job satisfying. 200 201. Your Project Sponsor wants to know what measures you have taken to ensure quality on your project. You tell her you will use most of the Seven Basic Quality Tools, which include all of the following, except: A. Pareto charts and histograms B. Requirements traceability matrix (RTM) and project management software C. Checksheets, flowcharts, and scatter diagrams D. Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagrams, and quality control charts Answer: B. Although helpful for tracking requirements over the course of the

project, RTM is not one of the 7 basic quality tools. Likewise, project management software is helpful mostly for scope, schedule, and budgetnot quality. 201 202. A Business Analyst is assisting you in developing a business case with senior management. This relates best to: A. B. C. D. Product requirements Product specifications Business requirements Collaboration with the customer Answer: C. Business requirements are determined as part of the business need, and documented as the business case. The customer may not care

much if their desires match the companys needs/requirements (i.e. Customer requirements). 202 203. Your company is constantly looking for ways to reduce/eliminate waste on all projects. This relates best to: A. B. C. D. 80/20 rule Halo effect Parkinsons law LEAN Answer: D. LEAN relates to best to Just in Time (JIT) and possibly Kanban visual charts. 80/20 often relates to Pareto charts. Halo effect relates to assuming people will be good at another assignment, simply because they

are good at another job. Work expands so as to fill the time/money available relates to Parkinsons law. 203 204. A Business Analyst will assist you on the project you have just been assigned to. She tells you she will use the following project document to track requirements: A. B. C. D. Requirements traceability matrix Business requirements grid Customer and stakeholder RACI-RAMs Resource tracking table Answer: A. The requirements traceability matrix is a key tool for tracking requirements. The rest are made up terms for project documentation.

204 205. You are observing that people on your team believe that stakeholders should behave as robots, to decrease the drama during the project lifecycle. But you understand the people should recognize their own and other stakeholders emotions, and to use this information to guide thinking and behavior. This relates best to which of the following. A. B. C. D. Emotional intelligence (EI) Emotional wisdom (EW) Emotional discernment (ED) Emotional qualification (EQ) Answer: A. Emotional intelligence (EI) relates to observing peoples feelings

as they are NOT robots. This information can help with communications, negotiations, motivation, etc. The rest are made up answers. 205 206. Youre being assigned to an important software development project that must be completed within three weeks. Most of your past experience has been with predictive lifecycles, but this project will require you to be more adaptive to frequent modifications. You will need to work closely with stakeholders over five, main, iteration, milestone events. This relates best to: A. B. C. D. Just-in-time (JIT) Kanban LEAN Agile

Answer: D. Agile relates to adaptive lifecyclesmainly iterative and incremental lifecycles in a fast-paced, change-driven, evolutionary environment. LEAN relates to JIT, and Kanban. 206 207. Formalized acceptance relates best to which processes? A. B. C. D. Continuous Process Improvement Plan and Quality Assurance Monitoring and Controlling Perform Quality Control and Validate Scope Plan Quality and Control Scope Answer: C. Quality Control (verify), and Validate Scope (accept deliverables) best relate to acceptance (formalized acceptance). Note that you verify

quality, and then validate scope to yield accepted deliverables. 207 208. You are developing a RACI-RAM. What does RACI stand for? A. B. C. D. Responsible, Accountable, Console, Inform Reliable, Accountable, Consult, Intellectual Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform Responsible, Accountable, Conforming, Informing Answer: C. The rest are made up. 208 209. Which of the following would be best for ensuring the project aligns with

business requirements? A. B. C. D. Quality Control Contracts Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) Stakeholder Engagement Answer: C. KPIs are a type of performance measurement used to evaluate the success of the overall project. (E.g. zero defects, meets business requirements, customer satisfaction.) 209 210. Which of the following would best relate to Tuckmans team phases (sequentially) teams often go through:

A. B. C. D. Exploring, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Conforming Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning Forming, Storming, Performing, Norming, and Adjourning Answer: C. The rest are made up, or not in the correct sequence. 210 211. A quality management and control tool, also useful for risk contingency planning is: A. B. C.

D. Histograms Pareto Charts Benchmarking Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC) Answer: D. Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC) may be used for this purpose. NOTE: PDPC is NOT one of the seven basic quality tools are as the others here are. For the exam, link Pareto charts to the vital few, and the 80/20 rule. 211 212. Which of the following relates best to to Total Quality Management (TQM), Edwards Deming, iterative/incremental/adaptive lifecycles, Agile, and possibly rolling wave/progressive elaboration? A. B. C.

D. OPM3 and CMMI Encoder, medium, communication blockers, decoder, and feedback Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) Answer: D. This is a key TQM concept for continuous improvement (i.e. iteration). A Organizational Process Maturity Model Methodology (OPM3) and Capability Maturity Model Integrated (CMMI) relate to rating the organizations repeatable/consistency in performing project-related processes. B relates the communication model. C relates to Tuckmans team stages. 212 213. Your project has an SPI of .9, and a CPI of 1.2. Which of the following could be the reason for this? A. You are .9% ahead of schedule, but 1.2% behind of schedule. B. The work is not being done according to your schedule, and you have yet to pay the sellers.

C. You are more behind on budget than schedule. D. The work is being done according to schedule, but you are behind on budget. Answer: B. You are only progressing at 90% of the rate originally planned, but are 20% under budget. Eventually, you will have to pay the vendors, and at that time, you may find that you are also over budget. Often, when you are behind schedule, its just a matter of time before you go over budget as well. 213 214. Your company has been working with a particular contractor for many years, and has been happy with their performance. You have just been assigned to take over a very large project, that will require the services of a competent contractor. A program manager advises you to just use the standard generic company contract. Which of the following would be the best course of action for you to take before hiring the seller? A. Use the generic contract and make changes, if needed. B. Set up a meeting to discuss your concerns with the legal and procurement departments to ensure you protect all stakeholders for this

potential transaction. C. Ask the contractor for a copy of their generic contract, and sign it. D. Its more important to synchronize the objectives of the buyer/seller by adding award/incentive fees as early as possible. Answer: B. Note how its best to seek expert advice. In the case of contracts, the legal and/or the procurement departments are better than the other stakeholders mentioned in the other answers. The other answers still do not address the fact the contract needs to reflect the work, schedule, cost, 214 etc are appropriate. For the exam, get everything in writing. 215. You are performing the Develop Project Team Process. Which of the following tools/techniques would you most likely be performing? A. B. C. D. Compromising

Pre-assignment Training/mentoring Maslows Hierarchy of Needs Answer: C. Training (informal/formal/mentoring/coaching) is the only tool and technique that relates to this process. A Compromising may relate to conflict resolution. B Pre-assignment may be done during Acquire Project Team. D This is a motivation theory. 215 216. You are submitting time/cost reports, reviewing disbursements, linking to code of accounts, and reviewing contract provisions for your software development project. You are most likely using: A. B. C. D. Financial control procedures

Project scheduling tools Administrative closure tools Quality metrics and checklists Answer: A. Note how this relates best to project financial, budget, & cost procedures. ($) B is more for schedule, not cost-related. C is too general. D is quality, not cost-related. 216 217. A Senior Project Manager that does not believe in PMI best practices, and never took the PMP exam, has recently retired. You have been assigned his project which is now only 50% done. After assessing the project with the Project Sponsor, you realize the project is significantly behind schedule, and significantly over budget. During your discussion, the Project Sponsor realizes the project has now become a huge money pit, because the project/product scope was poorly defined. The most likely reason this has occurred relates to all of the following, except: A. B.

C. D. No lifecycle was determined. Key stakeholders were not identified. Project management software was likely not used. A Project Charter was not developed. Answer: C. Note how this does not relate to whats most vital during the early phases of the project. While helpful, this tool will not help if a good foundation is not first determined.) All the rest, relate to solid PMI best practices. 217 218. You are making up a hammock portion of the project schedule network diagram. Activity A can start immediately, and takes 10 days. Activity B can start immediately, and takes 11 days. Activity C can start after Activity A and B are complete and takes 20 days. Activity D can start after activity B is complete, and takes 30 days. Activity E can start after Activity D is complete, and takes 5 days. Activity F is the last Activity in

the diagram, can start after Activity D and E are complete, and takes 10 days. Which is true? A. B. C. D. This example refers to crashing and fast-tracking. Activities A and B should be crashed immediately. Activity F is on the critical path. A backward pass is required to provide more information. Answer: C. Activity F is on the critical path, as it will always have 0 float/slack as all other activities are predecessors. This will be true even if there are changes in other activity durations. 218 219. You are closing out your project, and there will be a modest cost overrun which you will share with a seller. The sharing ratio

documented in the contract is 60/40. The cost overrun is $10,000. How much of the cost overrun is the seller responsible for? A. B. C. D. Not enough information to calculate $400 $6,000 $4,000 Answer: D. Sharing ratio is in Buyer/Seller (B/S) order. .40 x $10,000 = $4,000 219 220. The late finish for Activity D was 20 days, and the early finish is 21 days. Based on this information you know: A.

B. C. D. Activity D will take 41 days to complete. The project will definitely finish late. Activity D is ahead of schedule by 1 day. Activity D is late by 1 day. Answer: D. Activity D is not only on the critical path, it is one day late. Late Finish Early Finish = Float. 20 21 = -1 (NOTE: Just because one activity is late, does not necessarily mean the project will be late.) 220 221. You and key stakeholders are determining the scope for the project. Its important to have an accurate scope baseline. Which of the following processes produces the scope baseline? A. B.

C. D. Create WBS Plan Requirements Management Define Scope Collect Requirements Answer: A B is close, but A is better. C produces the Project Scope Statement. D collects/elicits requirements. All relate to the Scope Baseline. 221 222. You and your project management staff are performing product analysis. What process are you performing? A. B. C. D.

Define Scope Collect Requirements Create WBS Develop Project Charter Answer: A The Project Scope Statement can be developed by reviewing the Project Charter (high-level product information). 222 223. You and your project management staff are determining calendar dates for your projects schedule. You are performing which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Estimate Activity Durations Develop Schedule

Sequence Activities Estimate Resources Answer: B A determines work periods, not calendar dates. C merely sequences activities. D merely estimates what and how many resources will be required. 223 224. You and your project management staff are determining how to sequence activities. Which of the following dependency relationships is most common and considered mandatory? A. B. C. D. Start-to-finish Start-to-start Finish-to-finish

Finish-to-start Answer: D All the other activity dependencies are performed concurrently. 224 225. You and your project management staff are determining the budget required to complete the project. You have estimated the costs and aggregated the costs to perform the project activities. When you examine the Project Charter, you note the control account is less than what will be needed to complete the project. This relates to: A. B. C. D. Procurement estimating Cost Control Delphi technique Funding limit reconciliation

Answer: D A is a made up term but would only be a subset of overall project cost. B is not as good as D. C relates to anonymous information gathering. 225 226. You are in the middle of a biomedical device project in Canada. A team member informs you the project currently has a CPI of 1.3. Which of the following should you do first? A. Ask the team if they can work overtime for the foreseeable future. B. Tell the Project Sponsor you will need to crash the project as soon as possible. C. Verify that the EV and PV that were used to calculate are correct. D. Verify that the EV and AC that were used to calculate are correct. Answer: D (EV/AC = CPI) If these numbers are correct (verify first), the project is under budget. A Since you are likely under budget, this will probably not be necessary. B is not neededsee A. C PV is not used to calculate CPI. 226

227. You are in the middle of a large building project in Brazil. A team member informs you that changes will need to be made soon. Which of the following should you do first? A. B. C. D. Recommend alternatives to the Change Control Board (CCB). Ask for a detailed description of the change. Follow your change control process. Ensure you have sufficient contingency reserves. Answer: C Follow your change control process, is typically always the best course of action. The other options may all be part of this process. 227 228. You have been assigned to set up a call center in Panama, that will

service most of Central and South America. You and a Business Analyst are assisting with developing a business case as an input to the Project Charter. Which of the following does not relate to developing a Project Charter? A. Ensure success can be measured (e.g. SMART Objectives, Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)). B. Identify key stakeholders/groups, and record in the Stakeholder Register. C. Developing a Stakeholder Management Plan. D. Determine high-level goals/objectives. Answer: C This process is performed in Planning, not Initiating. 228 229. EV = 100, AC = 110, PV = 90. Based on this data, which of the following is true? A. B. C. D.

You are over budget, but ahead of schedule. You are under budget, but behind schedule. Vendors may need to be hired to get the project back of schedule. The project should be crashed as soon as possible. Answer: A (EV / AC = CPI) .90 means you are only getting .90 cents for every dollar invests (over budget). EV / PV = SPI 1.11 means you are 11% ahead of schedule. So, you are over budget, and ahead of schedule right now. Crashing the project would likely put it even more over budget. 229 230. You have been asked by your Project Sponsor where you have documented the steps that will be taken during the course of the project to make continuous improvements. Where is this information documented? A. B. C.

D. Quality Improvement Plan. Quality Management Plan. Scope Improvement Plan. Scope and Quality Benchmarking. Answer: B. Along with quality metrics and quality checklists. A & C are made up terms. Benchmarking is a tool/technique for analysis of scope and quality. 230 231. You have been asked by your Project Sponsor to develop an adaptive lifecycle for your project, that will only take about 2 weeks to complete. Which of the following does not relate to an adaptive lifecycle? A. B. C. D.

Plan Do Check Act (PDCA) Agile Iterative and incremental lifecycles CMMI Answer: D. A relates to Total Quality Management, quality improvement, Edwards Deming, iterative/incremental/adaptive lifecycles, Agile, and possibly rolling wave/progressive elaboration. B relates to C. D looks at maturity level of an organization. Note how A, B, C all relate to each other. 231 232. Your Sponsor wants to understand why you want to include additional money in your project budget to address the cost of conformance. Which of the following relates to the cost of conformance? A. B. C. D.

Loss of business Legal liabilities Rework Training Answer: D. Upfront, preventative costs. A, B, & C all relate the cost of NONconformance (failure costs). 232 233. Which of the following relates to linking performance to rewards, that may change over time? A. B. C. D. Situational Theory Expectancy Theory Hygiene Theory

Theory Z Answer: B. This relates to Victor Vrooms Expectancy Theory. A relates to Hersey/Blanchard (leaders, followers, situation). C relates to Herzberg (hygiene factors, motivating agents). D relates to Ouichis theory that people are more motivated/committed if they are promised lifelong employment. 233 234. Which of the following relates to motivating agents: A. B. C. D. Need to achieve, affiliate, or have power Hierarchy of Needs Theory Frederick Herzbergs Three Needs Theory Frederick Herzbergs Hygiene Theory

Answer: D. Hygiene factors and motivating agents. A is three needs theory. B is Abraham Maslows theory. C is close, but not the name of the theory. 234 235. All of the following tools can be used to brainstorm the source of defects, except: A. B. C. D. Ishikawa diagrams Causal influence diagrams Quality metrics Nominal group technique Answer: C. Quality metrics are not a brainstorming tool to determine causes (sources) of defects, but are used to measure quality. A, B, & D are

brainstorming tools that can be tools used to brainstorm causes. 235 236. You have been assigned to a hazardous waste cleanup project that will take eight months. Your companys personnel, and the vendors that will be needed have not received training on how to perform their duties safely. Which is the best course of action to recommend to your Project Sponsor? A. Proceed without training, but tell all stakeholders to be careful while handling the hazardous waste. B. Tell all stakeholders that need training to pay for their own training. C. As a cost of conformance, train all stakeholders that will be in harms way. D. Train the employees, but not the vendors. Answer: C Team training is considered a cost of conformance. It is best to train both affected parties in this instance, rather than risk legal cases, etc. 236

237. Which of the following best relates to observing/analyzing feelings? A. B. C. D. Stakeholder engagement Conflict resolution Emotional intelligence (EI) Communication model Answer: C Emotional Intelligence (EI), sometimes called emotional quotient (EQ), is the ability to recognize our own as well as other peoples emotions, to discriminate between different feelings, and to use this information to guide thinking/behavior. Having a high EI is considered to be good for leadership, mental health, and better job performance. . 237

238. Conflicts have been surfacing frequently on your software development project lately. You have determined you should not overlook them. Which of the following relates to the best type of conflict management? A. B. C. D. Compromising Smoothing Avoiding Storming Answer: A Its the best answer, because joint problem solving is not listed. B & C do not address the problem. D may be the team development stage that includes conflict, but is not a technique for managing it. . 238

239. You have just been assigned to build a large state-of-the-art cleanroom for a large computer chip manufacturer. You need to ensure risk is carefully managed over this two-year project. Which of the following lifecycles would be most appropriate? A. B. C. D. Agile Predictive Iterative Rolling wave Answer: B With predictive lifecycles, more time is spent upfront planning, including risk management. The other choices relate more to adaptive/change-driven lifecycles. 239

240. All of the following take place during the Monitoring and Controlling, Process Group, except: A. B. C. D. Formalized acceptance Quality Assurance is performed Changes are recommended to the Change Control Board Risk audits/reassessment is performed Answer: B Quality Assurance is performed during Executing. All the other choices are performed during Monitoring and Control. 240 241. You will require two, key contractors (SMEs) to execute your landscaping project, and are negotiating now to determine their availability. This is an example of:

A. B. C. D. Fait accompli External stakeholders Pre-assignment Virtual team members Answer: C These stakeholders will be necessary to begin. A is a negotiating tactic a seller might use. B is wrong because they would actually be internal project stakeholders. D is wrong because it has nothing to do with the need to assign the team members. 241 242. You have included several quality control tools on your toll road project including quality control charts. All of the following relate to a quality control chart, except:

A. B. C. D. Specification and upper/lower control limits Rule of seven and assignable cause Mean Sensitivity analysis Answer: D Sensitivity analysis relates more to quantitative risk analysis. All the other choices relate to a quality control chart. 242 243. You will need to spend a significant amount of time estimating resources, duration, and cost on your project. Which of the following estimates is most likely the least accurate: A. B.

C. D. Parametric estimating Three-point estimating Bottom-up estimating Analogous Answer: D Analogous is typically performed during Initiating and high-level (Rough order of magnitude ROM). Note the Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Duration, and Estimate Costs are performed during the Planning Process Group. The level of accuracy for a ROM estimate (Initiating) is -25% to +75%. The definitive estimate accuracy level (Planning) is -5% to +10%. 243 244. You will need to spend some time estimating resources, duration, and cost on your project. Which of the following estimates may encourage participation and reduce bias:

A. B. C. D. Parametric estimating Three-point estimating Bottom-up estimating Delphi technique Answer: D Anonymous (i.e. Delphi) estimating is typically performed to help encourage participation. 244 245. You and your project management staff are developing the Human Resource Management Plan. You are currently discussing how to recognize and reward the project team. Which of the following is typically the best approach:

A. Reward the project team at the end of project. B. Reward only high-performing individuals at the key milestones. C. This should be done at the employees regular performance reviews with the Human Resources department. D. Reward the team and high performing individuals regularly (e.g. key milestones) over the course of the project. Answer: D Its best to keep everyone as motivated as possible throughout the project lifecycle. A waits too long for recognition, and only focuses on the teamnot individuals. 245 246. Which of the following does not relate to Communications Management: A. B. C. D.

Virtual team considerations. Non verbal communication and para-lingual ques. Encoder, Medium, Communication Blockers, Decoder, Feedback. Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform (RACI). Answer: D This relates more to different levels of authority in the ( Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). A may relate to technology, time zones, culture, language. B 55% of communication is body language, and Para-lingual queues relates to the pitch and tone of the voice. C relates to the components of the communications model. 246 247. You are developing a predictive lifecycle on your construction project in Mexico to better manage risk. Process sequence is paramount. Which processes are not listed in the proper sequence? A. B. C. D.

Estimate Resources, Estimate Activity Duration, Sequence Activities Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs, Develop Budget Plan Human Resource Management, Plan Communications Management Answer: A Estimating comes after sequencing activities. All the rest are in the proper sequence. 247 248. You are currently helping senior management determine which project to select. All of the following relate to project selection methods, except: A. B. C. D.

Affinity diagrams Constrained optimization method Benefit cost ratio Monte Carlo Simulation/Modeling Answer: A. It is more likely to see affinity diagrams mentioned as a quality assurance tool/technique during the Executing Process Group. B relates to using a computer for project selection, as does D. C is a benefit measurement method that often relates to determining value on the exam. 248 249. You are currently closing down your project. Which is a helpful input for closing down the project, and closing procurements. A. B. C. D.

Organizational Process Asset updates Communication logs Project Management Plan Final change requests Answer: C. The Project Management Plan is an input for both process performed during Closing. A is always an output. B is a made up term. D should have already been completed. 249 250. You are performing quantitative risk analysis during Planning. Expected monetary value analysis (EMV) (e.g. decision tree) provides the following information; Project A has an EMV of $100,000, Project B has an EMV of $75,000, Project C has an EMV of $100,500, and Project D has an EMV of $90,000. You would most likely choose which project based on this information. A. B.

C. D. Project B Project A Project D Project C Answer: D. With no other information available, just choose the highest EMV. Note that answer D is Project C. Be careful! 250 251. You have to resolve a conflict that is beginning to plague you and one of the members on your project team. The person you need to resolve the conflict with is in the same city, but not in your building. The best way to resolve the conflict is: A. Notify the persons boss via email, to see if all three of you can come to a compromise.

B. Set up a phone conference with the person before the next meeting, to let them know why you are concerned. C. Bring up the issue at the next project status meeting, and allow the team to help resolve the issue. D. Set up a time to meet the person, and meet them in the cafeteria or break room to chat about the issue(s). Answer: D. Face-to-face, one-on-one, informal conflict resolution is always best. 251 252. You are working with your project management staff on your risk register. All of the following could relate to this process except: A. B. C. D. Scales of probability and impact and the probability-impact matrix. A list of qualified risks based on probability and impact.

Residual risks, and secondary risks. Contingency strategies, and reserves. Answer: A. This information would not likely appear in the risk register, but the other choices would. 252 253. Which of the following processes has change requests as an input: A. B. C. D. Perform Quality Assurance. Perform Integrated Change Control. Change Control Management Planning. Direct Project Work. Answer: B. This is the only process that has change request has an input.

It would be an output for all the other choices. The change control board (CCB) would review the recommendation during this process and approve/reject/defer the recommendation. 253 254. You are determining how to address threats on your project. Which of the following would be least applicable as a risk response strategy for threats on your project? A. B. C. D. Mitigate Avoid Transfer Reveal Answer: D. This is an opportunity response strategy. (For threats, ATMA.

Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept.) 254 255. All of the following relate to risk opportunities, except: A. B. C. D. Share Accept Enhance Secondary risk Answer: D. These are risks that may need to be addressed after contingency strategies have been taken. All the rest are opportunity response strategies. (For opportunities, ESEA. Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept.) 255

256. You are in the process of selecting a contractor for your building project. Which of the following is most important: A. Ensuring the contract is in writing. B. Ensuring the sellers can perform the work needed, and all possible sellers should have the same likelihood for being selected. C. Watching for collusion between sellers. D. Ensuring the seller will be available when you will need them. Answer: B. Capability for the work, fairness and objectivity are paramount when selecting a seller. All the others choices are important too, but B is the best answer. Capability is more important than availability. 256 257. You are asking your contract administrator to archive procurement related information in the records management system. You are most likely performing: A. B. C.

D. Plan Procurements and/or Conduct Procurements Plan Procurements and/or Close Procurements Plan Bidder Conferences and/or Close Procurements Control Procurements and/or Close Procurements. Answer: D. Both of these Procurement processes have Records Management System listed as a tool/techniqueand NO other processes do. C Plan bidder conferences is just a made up term. 257 258. You are working with your seller and your contract administrator to ensure both parties are meeting contractual obligations. You are most likely performing which process: A. B. C. D.

Conduct Procurements Change Control Close Procurements Control Procurements Answer: D. The Control Procurements process is when this activity is done. 258 259. During Planning, you decided to hire 10 contractors. Now, you are having regular unresolved issues with one of them. What is the best thing to do first? A. Review the terms and conditions in their contract. B. Let the contractor know they are in breach of contract by sending them a letter of default. C. Ask the contractor if they know of another vendor that could do the work properly, because they appear to not be capable of completing the work on time.

D. Wait to see if the contractor will perform better during the next phase. Answer: A. Look before you leap. Hopefully, you have a termination clause. The other options do not provide the information you will need to make an informed decision. 259 260. You have been asked to calculate the To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on the EAC. The BAC is 100,000, the EV is $120,00, the EAC is 110,000, and the AC is $105,000. What is the TCPI? A. B. C. D. -4 4 .83

5,000 Answer: A. The formula, when based on EAC, is (BAC EV) / (EAC AC) -$20,000 / $5,000 = -4, which is good. 260 261. You have been asked to use weighted average estimates. Optimistic estimate is 100, most likely estimate is 125, and pessimistic is 200. Based on this information, which of the following is true for this situation? A. You should use the triangular formula, 100 + 125 + 200 / 3 = 141.66 days B. You should use Program Evaluation and Review Technique, by weighting the most likely by a factor of 4. The formula is O + 4M + P / 3. This means the calculation is 100 + 500 + 200 / 3 = 266.66 days. C. You should use Program Evaluation and Review Technique, by weighting the most likely by a factor of 4. The formula is O + 4M + P / 6. This means the calculation is 100 + 500 + 200 / 6 = 133.33 days. D. Pessimistic - Optimistic = 100 days. Answer: C. This is the PERT formula for weighted average estimating. A is not a weighted average, and is using the triangular estimate formula. B is not

the correct formula (divides by 3). D is not the correct formula. 261 262. Your Project Sponsor has asked you to overlook some quality issues on your Bridge to Somewhere project, and just move on to close out the project. You should tell them which of the following, first? A. You will be turning in your letter of resignation as soon as possible. B. You will be sending an email to the CEO stating what you have been asked to do. C. You will adhere to their direction, as you dont want to be insubordinate. D. As a project management professional (PMP) you have agreed to adhere to code of ethics put forth by the PMI. Answer: D. You will have to see how the Project Sponsor responds to this, and then take the proper actions. A may be a little too spontaneous. B is not advised, and could make a lot of things much worse for you. C is not adhering to the PMI code of ethics. This question relates to professional responsibility. 262

263. Which of the following is the most sought-after characteristics of a leader to have? A. B. C. D. Integrity and intelligence. Integrity and trustworthiness. Experience and intelligence. Facilitation and communication skills. Answer: B. Best answer. Trust and integrity are considered more important than the other choices. This relates to professional responsibility. 263 264. You are reviewing some bids from sellers, when you notice that a close family member wants to be considered for work on your project. You should:

A. Keep this quiet until the contract has been signed. B. Tell the family member you cannot accept their bid for the project. C. Let management and/or other key stakeholders know, and ask them what they want you to do. D. Ask to be removed for the project. Answer: C. Its best to reveal these types of situation to management. This relates to professional responsibility. 264 265. Which of the following best relates to a portfolio: A. B. C. D. A collection of projects, programs, sub-portfolios, and operations Weak matrix organization, and the Project Management Office (PMO) Balanced matrix organization, and the Project Expeditor

OPM3 Answer: A. This is the best answer as it is the definition. B Weak and Balanced Matrix organizations likely dont have portfolio management. C Project Expeditors are essentially administrative assistants to the Project Manager. D OPM3 (and CMMI) may also relate to the Project Management Office (PMO), but they are used to rank the process maturity level of an organization or department. 265 266. Your WBS has just been drafted for your 6 month, $200,000 commercial construction project. Some quality issues and weather-related risks will need further research, but your sponsor has asked for a responsibility assignment matrix. Which of the following processes should be performed next. A. B. C.

D. Gather Requirements Estimate Activity Resources Sequence Activities Define Activities Answer: D. Work should be further decomposed into an activity list, based on milestones, and key events listed in the Scope Statement, and the WBS. NOTE: If you got this one wrong, you need to study the PMM Exam Reference Sheet more. 266 267. You are called into your sponsors office to explain your evaluation regarding a variance you documented in your weekly status report. Which process group does this reflect. A. B.

C. D. Earned Value Analysis Monitoring and Controlling Executing Integrated Change Control Answer: B. Only B and C represent Process Groups. The evaluation for variance is performed during Monitoring and Controlling. 267 268. Your boss has asked you to help them decide which project would most likely benefit the company, but all your projects must comply with six sigma quality requirements. This activity might encompass all of the following, except: A. B.

C. D. The Rule of Seven Constrained Optimization (e.g. Monte Carlo Simulation) Benefit Measurement using Net Present Value or Internal Rate of Return Opportunity Cost or Sunk Cost Answer: A. The rule of seven relates to a quality control chart. All the rest relate to project selection methods, which is what you are actually doing, as you are in the Initiating Process Group. 268 269. After two months of research, your business case is nearly complete. Which of the following process are you most likely ready to perform. A. B. C.

D. Initiating Develop Project Management Plan Develop Project Charter Identify Stakeholders Answer: C. The business case is an input to the Develop Project Charter Process, which is performed during Initiating. A is a Process Group. B is done during Planning. D is done a little later during Initiating. 269 270. In the middle of your project, you determine several changes have been made by a several stakeholders. You have asked each of these stakeholders for a detailed description of the changes they have implemented. This most likely relates to: A. B.

C. D. Lack of contingency and/or fallback plans Lack of a Stakeholder Register and/or Risk Register Lack of a WBS and/or Activity List Lack of a formal change control system Answer: D. Lack of a formal change control system. There is nothing in the situation to infer the other items do not exist. 270 271. Everything has been going very well on your project, when suddenly the customer requests a major change. What should you do first? A. B. C. D.

Create a formal change request Inform your Sponsor Update the Risk Register Call an emergency meeting to inform all stakeholders of the impact of the change. Answer: A. Creating a formal change request, should be the first step in the change control process. Until you have the change request, performing the others would be premature. 271 272. Although your customer can be high-maintenance at times, they have asked for very few changes over the past 8 months. Youve been able to remain ahead of schedule and under budget to this point in the project. Since you have some extra time and money, the customer asks for one last small change. What should you do? A.

B. C. D. Get permission from the Sponsor and/or the Change Control Board Perform assumptions analysis to determine the overall risk Analyze the impact of the change on other project constraints Since the change does not impact the budget and you have extra time, implement the change Answer: C. This relates to best to balancing the tradeoffs of resources, scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk. 272 273. You will be using multi-level programming to select your next project. Which of the following does this relate to? A. B. C.

D. Earned Value Analysis Benefit Measurement Method S-Curve Simulation Constrained Optimization Method Answer: D. Any project selection technique with the word programming (or simulation/modeling) in it, relates to the Constrained Optimization Method. A Earned Value Analysis is a technique for performance measurement, and is performed during Monitoring and Controlling. 273 274. You will using the benefit measurement method to select your next project. This relates to all of the following, except: A. Present Value (PV), Net Present Value (NPV), Internal Rate of Return (IRR) B. Payback period, opportunity cost, sunk cost

C. Law of diminishing returns, depreciation, Expected Monetary Value (EMV) D. Monte Carlo Simulation (S-curve report) Answer: D. Any project selection technique with the word simulation in it, relates to Constrained Optimization Method, and requires a computer. All other choices relate to Benefit Measurement Methods. 274 275. Things have gone well on your first software development project, and you think you are ready to begin closeout. What should be done before moving to the Close Project or Phase Process Group? A. Storing final lessons learned information into a PMIS B. Verifying and validating deliverables (i.e. Formalized acceptance) C. Product acceptance from the customer, and procurement closure activities with the vendor D. Project acceptance from the project sponsor, and releasing the resources Answer: B. Verifying and validating deliverables is performed during Monitoring and Controlling (Quality Control and Validate Scope Processes).

Note that accepted deliverables is an input to the Close Project or Phase process. 275 276. You are in the midst of collecting requirements. You might use all of the following, except: A. B. C. D. Brainstorming and/or nominal group technique Decompose the work into more manageable components Mind mapping and/or focus groups Affinity diagrams, benchmarking, and/or context diagrams Answer: B. Decompose the work occurs later during the Create WBS process. A, C, and D relate to tools and techniques for the Collect

Requirements process, but note how just knowing the sequence helps here. 276 277. Which of the following would best benefit from the Create WBS process? A. B. C. D. Stakeholders Project Team Customer Project Manager Answer: A. Note how this is one of the those, all of the above type answers. It includes the others.

277 278. Your Sponsor wants you to cut the red tape, and get on with project execution. You are explaining the benefits of creating a WBS. A WBS would best relate to which of the following benefits? A. B. C. D. Resource assignments and information related to functional managers Calendar dates Quality benchmarking, and risk responses Team building and communicating with the customer, as well as other stakeholders Answer: D. Communication and team building is the best answer. The WBS is a key team building AND communication tool. The WBS does not directly provide the information for A, B, or C.

278 279. When is the best time to Validate Scope? A. B. C. D. Throughout the Planning Process Group During Executing At the end of a phase At project closeout Answer: C. At the end of a phase, often relates to a check point. This typically relates to Monitoring and Controlling. 279

280. You have just accepted all the deliverables and addressed all items in the issue log. But now, the customer is asking for one more change. Which of the following is most appropriate to do first at this late stage in the project life cycle? A. Since you are now in closing, it is appropriate to recommend a follow-on project with the Project Sponsor B. Ask for a description of the change from the customer C. Meet with the project team to determine whether the change can still be made without affecting the schedule and/or the budget D. Explain that after the deliverables have been accepted, changes cannot be made Answer: B. Ask the customer for a description of the change is the best answer Always look before you leap. Follow your change control process, even during Closing. 280 281. You are having difficulty decomposing the work. What is the most likely reason? A.

B. C. D. Improper prioritization (e.g. MoSCoW) A vague Project Scope Statement Too much detailed information to sort through Work package sizing has increased risk of creating an accurate WBS Answer: B. Ambiguous wording of the Project Scope Statement. Knowing the sequence is key here. 281 282. You have asked your business analyst to do the product analysis. You recommend getting this information prior to creating a WBS. Which of the following relates best to this? A. B.

C. D. Gaining a more complete description of the product with the customer Using the Requirements Traceability Matrix Developing the business requirements This information would most likely be listed in the WBS Dictionary Answer: A. This would be done to better draft the project scope statement , prior to the other options. Again, sequence matters! 282 283. You are using project management software to monitor your software development project. There is no lag time on the critical path. However, you have just realized that a key activity had a late finish day of 12, and an early finish day of 14. Based on this information, which of the following can be currently said of the activity. A.

B. C. D. Its behind schedule by 2 days Its part of an incomplete 3-point estimate Its behind schedule by 2 days, and thus, over budget The project will end two days late Answer: A. Because the activity has negative float/slack, it must be behind schedule. (Late Finish Early Finish = Float). We dont know enough to tell whether the project will be late, or over budget, at this point. Also note, it does not say whether the key activity is on the critical path, or near critical path. 283 284. Quality Assurance relates most to which of the following: A. B. C.

D. Continual process improvement Verified deliverables Formalized acceptance Earned Value Analysis Answer: A. Continual process improvement relates more to Quality Assurance, which is performed during Executing. 284 285. You are determining the scope of your software project with the applicable stakeholders, who are more familiar with Scrum. They refer to the customer as the Product Owner. You are fine with this rename, as long as you get the correct requirements. In this context, documenting features and functions best relates to: A. B.

C. D. Creating a user story Developing a requirements traceability matrix Perform what-if-analysis Communication tools for communicating progress to the developers Answer: A. User = Customer. Creating a user story is essentially gathering customer-specific information for what the product is, and how the product will function. Think of it as a work package, that will be further decomposed. 285 286. Youve been hired as a PMO consultant to audit some projects. You have thought favorably of one of their Project Managers in particular, but they often struggle with bringing their projects in on budget. When you begin the audit, you notice that she has hired a relative as a sub-contractor. Some expenses appear abnormally high. You should:

A. Inform the director of the PMO of your findings. B. Tell the director of the PMO that you have a conflict of interest and resign from the project. C. Confront the PM and see what he has to say for himself. D. Report your findings to PMI. Answer: A. This is the best answer AFTER you have done the proper investigation to report. Let the PMO take the appropriate action after you present your findings And as always, DO THE RIGHT THING! 286 287. You have been assigned to manage a project for a difficult customer that you have worked with in the past. You thought their decisions were rash, and you didn't feel respected professionally. Your manager still thinks you're the best choice for this contract, even though there are other opportunities in the portfolio. What should you do? A. B. C. D.

Ask your manager to move you to another customer. Manage the project. Resign from the company. Reveal the dark side of the customer to your Sponsor, as issues surface. Answer: B. Projects may have difficult stakeholders that can cause conflict. You have to deal with conflictsit goes with the job. If your manager wants you to do your jobDO YOUR JOB! 287 288. Your brother is preparing for the PMP exam, which you have just passed. He asks you to share some of the questions from the exam with him. What should you do? A. Coach and mentor him with whatever questions you can remember form your exam. B. Explain you cannot cooperate with unethical behavior. C. Direct him to online resources (e.g. pmi.org) with sample questions and

explain that exam questions vary per exam applicant, and are confidential. D. Document and report him to PMI. Answer: B. PMI wants everyone to personally earn their certifications. You dont need to be accusatory or rude, but ensure that you do not give anyone an unfair advantage. NOTE: You could lose your certification status for providing such detailed information regarding PMI certification exams. 288 289. You are delivering equipment for road construction in Mexico. There have been some delays in transit, and the project is now behind schedule. The equipment is waiting in customs for clearance. A government official says he can speed up the process, saving several weeks in your schedule, by paying a $500 rush fee." What should you do? A. B. C. D.

Its a bribe. Do not pay the fee. Pay the fee, and document the payment in your cost management plan. Have a meeting and document the discussion. Ask an embassy official for guidance. Answer: B. In many parts of the world, this is just how things work. (Even in the U.S. sometimes .) Its kind of like a When in Rome situation. Note that it says they are a government official, not some private, covert, coyote-type person. But, its also good to keep things visible, whenever possible. Note that having a meeting (and documenting), accomplishes almost nothing. 289 290. One of your team members has recently been coming late to project meetings. He's an important contributor, and you consider him a friend. Last week, you smelled alcohol on his breath. He showed up late again today. After the meeting, you ask him to stay behind to discuss the situation. When it's just the two of you in the room, you clearly can smell alcohol again. What should you do?

A. B. C. D. Terminate him. Report him to HR. Ask him why his behavior has changed. Tell him to get into a recovery program or else. Answer: C. In most cases, you do not have formal authority to terminate people. Its usually best to start slow, by just letting them know that you have observed different behavior, and show concern. Give them a chance to explain. No need to go postal. Or for them to go postal :-0) 290 291. A PMP in your local PMI chapter has been convicted of embezzling funds from their employer. Since the amount was less than $100,000, he was sentenced to restitution and 5 years probation. He has opted to move to

get a fresh start, at a new company. You should: A. Tell him to give up his PMP certification voluntarily. B. Wait to see which new company they go to, and then warn their local PMI chapter. C. Nothing. D. Report the conviction and situation to PMI. Answer: D. Note this is a legal issue. In this case, PMI would investigate, and if true, revoke their PMP status. The PMI headquarters in Pennsylvania, not the PMI local chapter, would handle this situation 291 292. You are performing a project audit, when you notice there is an additional $3,500 charge. You were told it was essentially, a finders fee, that will go back to the sales department. Your organizations VP has already signed off on the charge. You should: A. B. C.

D. Inform the customer of the added expense. Take the issue to the company president for their final approval. Nothing. Ask the HR department if this is ethical. Answer: C. The VP has already approved it. Document as applicable, and move on. For the exam, generally once someone that is in a senior management position approves something, you just need to follow orders Unless, you deem it to be unlawful or unethical as far as breaching organizational policy, etc. In this case, you can assume that the VP is aware of the charge, as they have signed off on it. (Going over a VPs head, may not be good for your career .) 292 293. You have just been contracted to manage a project for your new job. You have a friend at your previous employer who hopes to come and work for you again. He has just sent you an extensive customer file to your personal

email. This data could provide very useful information to your new sales department, and could net a lot of business revenue. You should: A. Delete the file and do nothing else. B. Consult with your new company's legal department. C. Send his name to a recruiter at the new company since he is a good employee as long as he's treated fairly. D. Call the H.R. Department of the previous company and alert them to the situation. Answer: B. This is something that may be serious, and you dont want to cover up, deceive, or take anything into your own hands. In this case, its best to let someone in the legal department know ASAP, and let them advise you as to the appropriate action. 293 294. A former boss you liked working for, is looking for new opportunities for the new consulting agency he has just started. His skills are a great match for the project you have started to manage for the county. However, county guidelines dictate that all contracts must be awarded through a vetting process. This process is based on price, experience, and performance.

However, since his consulting firm is new, it doesn't meet the county's preferred number of years of experience. What should you do? A. Ask for a waiver, since you know he has great skills/experience. B. Let him know that you can't show him any favoritism, and not to bother submitting a proposal. C. Follow the county's guidelines and eliminate him as a prospective vendor. D. Suggest that he go through the RFP process and complete the application. Answer: D. This takes you off the hook, by merely stating that you all have to follow the rules. Who knows, if there are no other qualified applicants, management may have to make an exceptionbut thats not your call. 294 295. You have miscalculated a final cost change amount for your project, undercharging the customer nearly $8,000. The project was worth more than $900,000, so this shortage could be easily absorbed by your company. The project was slightly late, but the customer (not happy) had signed a change order for the late delivery. Now, you believe this customer will no longer do business with your company in the future. You should:

A. Provide the customer a revised change invoice amount by registered mail, apologizing for the miscalculation. B. Ignore the shortage and let the project absorb it. C. Modify the charge to reflect the elimination of the $10,000. D. Document the shortage, in the final lessons learned. Answer: A. Honesty (even if it could hurt) is the best policy. Keep things above the table, as much as possible. Note that by sending it registered mail, they have to sign for it. Remember that analysis and communication are very important during times of change control. 295 296. Which of the following is not a formula for Estimate At Completion (EAC)? A. B. C. D. BAC EV / BAC -AC

BAC / CPI AC + (BAC EV) AC + (BAC EV) SPI x CPI Answer: A. This is a formula for TCPI. 296 297. Which of the following is not a formula for Earned Value Management? A. B. C. D. N = n (n-1) / 2 CV = EV - AC SV = EV - PV SPI = EV / PV and CPI = EV / AC

Answer: A. This is a formula for determining the number of communication channels. The other choices relate to the big four EMV formulas. 297 298. Your project has an SPI of .85. What does this mean? A. B. C. D. You are 85% done with the project You are only getting 85 cents on the dollar You are ahead of schedule You are only progressing at 85% of the original planned rate Answer: D. Note this is schedule performance index. 298 299. Which of the following relate to being ahead of schedule, but over

budget? A. B. C. D. SPI = 1 and CPI = .9 ETC = $500,000 CV = 0 and SV = -$1000 SPI = 1.2 & CPI = .9 Answer: D. SPI must be greater than 1, and the CPI must be less than one to be correct. Note A, means on schedule, but not ahead of schedule. B is a bogus answer. Variances that are negative are behind, so C is incorrect. 299 300. Which of the following is incorrect? A. A CV or SV that is negative means that you are over budget, or behind

schedule respectively B. An SPI greater than one means you are ahead of schedule C. A TCPI less than one is bad. D. A CPI less than one means you are over budget Answer: C. A TCPI that is less than 1 is good. All the rest are true statements regarding the results of the formulas. 300

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